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Posted: 31 Aug 2017 03:16 AM PDT

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

 

Subject:  English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-58) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia. Why should this sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with skepticism? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market.
In short, the world has not changed, it has just moved placed. The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008. Policy makers in Asia I slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there is evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the undenying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective, Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly 51.1 turn on. Exuberance over a quick recovery which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second quarter has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.
Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hand sight. But investors who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far and that the slightest bit of negative, economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking stops to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese \ government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening. And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years. Asia may be neading for another disheartening plunge.

51. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?

(A) Reluctance or Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus.
(B) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade 1 stocks of American companies at high prices.
(C) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries.
(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B)

52. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has just moved places”?

(1) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on the US economy
(2) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation
(3) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(4) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(5) None of the above

53. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy?

(1) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(2) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(3) These efforts were ineffectual as-the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(4) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(5) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US

54. Why do experts predict that Asian policymakers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus?

(A) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time.
(B) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels.
(C) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens.
(1) None of these
(2) Only (C)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) (B) and (C)

55. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate?

(1) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(2) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the US
(3) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(4) The GDP of China was below expectations
(5) None of the above

56. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?

(A) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable.
(B) The government has decided to tighten credit.
(C) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.
(1) Only (C)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these

57. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(1) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(2) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(3) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic-principles
(4) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(5) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals

58. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?

(1) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(2) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(3) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(4) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(5) None of the above

Directions (Q.Nos. 59-65) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and work sites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many states. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled, to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act – upto 3000 per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances. It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The ‘jam’ in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank. However, delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non maintenance of muster rolls and job card etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate ‘backlash’ against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries the workload has remained without the “inducements”. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites.
The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model. Where in bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld, electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.
 

59. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers?

(1) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(2) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(3) They have been unable to provide for their families
(4) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(5) None of the above

60. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages?

(1) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(2) Improper record keeping
(3) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(4) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(5) Delays in work measurement

61. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been?

(1) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(2) Increased work load for local government officials
(3) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(4) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(5) None of the above

62. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence (s) of delayed wage payments?

(A) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(B) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(C) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.

(1) None of these
(2) Only (A)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) (B) and (C)

63. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments?

(1) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff
(2) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(3) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(4) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(5) Engineers’ efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages

64. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?

(A) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(B) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(C) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.
(1) Only(B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (C)
(5) All of these

65. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS?

(1) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(2) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(3) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(4) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(5) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Directions (Q. No. 66-70) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) (E) and (F) into a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.
(A) Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporates.
(B) This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies in India and abroad.
(C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting motivating and retaining their key staff.
(D) Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is important empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation.
(E) One reason is that young employees lured away to private firms are more willing to undertake professional risks.
(F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.

66. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

67. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F

68. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

69. Which of the following should be FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

70. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 71 -80) In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and againsteach five words have been suggested, one of which fills the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Traditional bank architecture is based on bank branches. These branches ensure the physical (71) of a customer’s savings. A customer may go there to deposit and withdraw money, (72) loans and (73) in other financial transactions. In the past two decades banking architecture has changed the Automated Teller Machine (ATM) has been a big (74) and credit and debit cards have created new financial spaces. (75) the bank branch has remained the bedrock of the banking system after all a person needs a bank account in a branch before he can operate a debit or ATM card. This may be about to change as technocrats now (76) cell phones as the new architecture of virtual banks. This has the potential to make branches (77). Cell phone banking looks especially relevant for India, since it can penetrate the countryside cheaply and (78). The world over cell phones are spreaing at a (79) rate and in India alone new cell phone connection are growing at the rate of six million a month a rate of customer (80) that no bank can dream of.

 

71.

 (1) knowledge
(2) security
(3) presence
(4) confidentiality
(5) guarantee

72.

(1) negotiate
(2) advance
(3) credit
(4) disburse
(5) sanction

73.

 (1) pursue
(2) interact
(3) operate
(4) enable
(5) engage

74.

(1) drawback
(2) hurdle
(3) consequence
(4) luxury
(5) innovation

75.

 (1) Despite
(2) Although
(3) Even (4) Yet
(5) Until

76.

(1) view
(2) realise
(3) display
(4) engineer
(5) assess

77.

 (1) essential (2) obsolete
(3) extant (4) retreat
(5) expired

78.

 (1) moderately
(2) occasionally
(3) compulsorily
(4) indiscriminately
(5) effectively

79.

(1) phenomenal
(2) gradual
(3) proportionate
(4) competitive
(5) projected

80.

(1) discount
(2) base
(3) expansion
(4) satisfaction
(5) relationship
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-85) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
 

81. In an effort to provide for higher education to all, most of the universities have been providing education without adequate infrastructure, thus churning out graduates every year.

(1) chances, fresh
(2) platform, capable
(3) opportunities, unemployable
(4) prospects, eligible
(5) policy, incompetent

82. The move to allow dumping of mercury an outcry from residents of the area who that high levels of mercury will affect their health and destroy ecologically sensitive forest area.

(1) resulted, insist
(2) provoked, fear
(3) incited, determined
(4) activated, accept
(5) angered, believe

83. Even as the elsewhere in the world are struggling to come out of recession, Indian consumers are splurging on consumer goods and to this growth, companies are investing heavily in various sectors.

(1) economies, meet
(2) countries, inhibit
(3) governments, measure
(4) nations, inflict
(5) companies, counter

84. Drawing attention to the pitfalls of solely on Uranium as a fuel for nuclear reactors, Indian scientists warned that Uranium will not last for long and thus research on Thorium as its must be revived.

(1) using, substitute
(2) believing, replacement
(3) depending, reserve
(4) reckoning, option
(5) relying, alternative

85. ............... has been taken against some wholesale drug dealers for dealing in surgical items without a valid license and maintaining a stock of drugs.

(1) Note, overwhelming
(2) Step, impressive
(3) Execution, outdated
(4) Action, expired
(5) Lawsuit, invalid

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (5) i.e./None of the above’ as the answer.

 

86. Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during summer, ...............

(1) the government issued guidelines to all builders to limit their consumption to acceptable limits
(2) provision for rainwater harvesting has been made to aid irrigation in drought prone area
(3) the water table did not improve even after receiving normal monsoon in the current year
(4) many residential areas continue to use swimming pools, wasting large quantities water
(5) None of the above

87. Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation of separate states, a recent report ..................

(1) proved that such agitations result in loss of governmental property
(2) indicated that the formation of small states does not necessarily improve the economy
(3) suggested that only large scale agitations have been effective in bringing out desired change in the past
(4) recommended dividing large states into smaller ones to improve governance
(5) None of the above

88. Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal, ..................

(1) political reforms are also neglected preventing women from entering legislatures and positions of power
(2) the problem is also deep rooted in the society and supported by it
(3) their empowerment is purposefully hampered by people with vested interests in all sections of the society
(4) it is also equally difficult to achieve and maintain for a long term
(5) None of the above

89. He has lost most of his life’s earning in the stock market but ...................

(1) he still seems to be leading his life luxuriously and extravagantly
(2) ha could not save enough to repay his enormous debts
(3) stock market is not a safe option to invest money unless done with caution
(4) experts have been suggesting to avoid investments in stock market because of its unpredictable nature
(5) None of the above

90. ............... or else they would not keep electing him year after year.

(1) The party leader gave a strong message to the mayor for improving his political style
(2) Owing to numerous scandals against the mayor, he was told to resign from the post immediately
(3) The mayor threatened the residents against filing a complaint against him
(4) The residents must really be impressed with the political style of their mayor
(5) None of the above

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Posted: 31 Aug 2017 12:11 AM PDT

 

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

 

Subject : English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.
1. Rich mineral resources and the government present willing to build infrastructure will attract plenty of foreign investment.
(a) government willingly present
(b) government presence is willing
(c) government is present but willing
(d) present government’s willingness
(e) No correction required
2. One of the city’s advantages including a good education system, attractive quality of life and a good transport system which can cope with its rising population.
(a) One of the city’s advantages include
(b) Some of the city’s advantages include
(c) The city has advantages included
(d) Many of the city’s advantages are included
(e) No correction required
3. Regulators in America have plans to increase the amount of capital that its eight largest banks can held and banks will have until 2018 to comply.
(a) increased the amount
(b) increase in the amount
(c) which increases the amount
(d) by increasing amounts
(e) No correction required
4. If we revise the school curriculum, colleges will not only get more quality of students but companies will also get skilled employees.
(a) most quality students
(b) good quality of the student
(c) students of best qualities
(d) better quality students
(e) No correction required
5. By running small dairy farms and selling the milk to factories, the women of the village takes care the needs of their families.
(a) woman of the village caring for
(b) woman of a village will care
(c) women of the village take care of
(d) village women taking care of
(e) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaning paragraph and then answer the given questions.
A. So while these partnerships are at times messy and controversial, on balance, they are a force for good.
B. NGOs help compaines reach and meet the needs of parts of the market that companies do not understand, such as the marginalised, where NGOs have unique insight.
C. But before concluding that such partnerships are valueless it is worth recalling the reasons why they took off in the first place.
D. For NGOs too, partnerships with firms have their uses, with companies providing money and ways of influencing the mindandbehaviour of millions of people.
E. There are many opponents to the close ties between companies and charities (Non-governmental Organisations-NGOs).
F. NGOs are also better than companies at attracting and retaining idealistic talent, who sometimes end up even being absorbed by the companies to administer the policies they had advocated when they worked for NGOs.

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6. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
7. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F
8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
9. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F
10. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Read these sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, If any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation if any)
11. Though the idea of high speed trains is/apprealingly, studies show that countries which/have such trains have found that they are much/more expensive than expected and are not used much.
(a) Though the idea of high speed trains is
(b) Appealingly, studies show that countries which
(c) have such trains have found that they are much
(d) more expensive than expected and are not used much
(e) No error
12. Innovations especially into a the field of/information technology can help to increase/the wages of the workforce provided/workers have the necessary skills.
(a) Innovations especially into the field of
(b) Information technology can help to increase
(c) the wages of the workforce provided
(d) workers have the necessary skills
(e) No error
13. While the country spend about $ 800 million on fireworks/every year, at a cost of only $ 74 million it/is set to launch a rocket into space to/orbit Mars and gather data about the planet.
(a) While the country spend about $ 800 million on fireworks
(b) every year, at a cost of only $ 74 million at
(c) is set to launch a rocket into space to
(d) orbit Mars and gather data about the planet
(e) No error
14. The government plans to launch a new healthcare system which/consists of a website where people’s registration for insurance,/ a data centre which stores records and an interface/which provides insurance companies with informaton.
(a) The government plans to launch a new healthcare system which
(b) consists of a website where people’s registration for insurance
(c) a data centre which stores records and an interface
(d) which provides insurance companies with information
(e) No error
15. Over half of China’s 1.4 billion population/lives in villages and the most pressing/problem faces the country today/is the lack of rural reforms.
(a) Over half of China’s 1.4 billion population
(b) lives in villages and the most pressing
(c) problem faces the country today
(d) is the lack of rural reforms
(e) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) These sentences have two blanks each indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words of the blanks which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
16. Young people may be ....... the ability to read emotions, as digital devices such as smartphones are .......... their face-to-face social skills.
(a) faking, hiding
(b) affecting, stopping
(c) losing, limiting
(d) failing, hindering
(e) mastering, providing
17. .......... are the days when consumers were passive passengers with little of .......... choice over the design of the product.
(a) Went, less
(b) Past, much
(c) Gone, no
(d) Extinct, nil
(e) Lost, so
18. Researchers .......... that eating less meat would help in .......... water resources in dry areas around the world.
(a) opine, conserve
(b) said, procuring
(c) suggest, removing
(d) prove, store
(e) believe, preserving
19. The government is ......... on launching a system to strictly monitor ............. of industrial wastes.
(a) keen, treatment
(b) thinking, capturing
(c) contemplating, cure
(d) interested, disposal
(e) eager, healing
20. Scientists, from across the country, have ......... emphasis on the need to take immediate steps to ............ the issue of climate change.
(a) placed, stop
(b) paid, halt
(c) given, hold
(d) laid, address
(e) put, clear
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Rural development in India has witnessed several changes over the years in its emphasis, approaches, strategies and programmes. It has assumed a new dimension and perspectives as a consequence. Rural development can be richer and more meaningful only through the participation of clienteles of development. Just as implementation is the touchstone for planning people’s participationis the centre-piece in rural development.
People’s participation is one of the foremost pre-requisites of development process both from procedural and philsophical perspectives. For the development planners and administrators, it is important solicit the participation of different groups of rural people, to make the plans participatory.
Rural Development aims at imporving rural people’s livelihoods in an equitable and sustainable manner, both socially and environmentally, through better access to assets and services, and control over productive capital.
The basic objectives of Rural Development Programmes have been alleviation of poverty and unemployment through creation of basic social and economic infrastructure, provision of training to rural unemployed youth and providing employment to marginal farmers/labourers to discourage seasonal and permanent migration to urban areas.
Rural Development is the main pillar of our nation’s development. In spite of rapid urbanisation, a large section of our population still lives in the villages. Secondly, rural India has lagged behind in development because of many historical factors.
Though, the 11th Plan began in very favourable circumstances with the economy having grown at the rate of 7.7% per year in the 10th Plan period, there still existed a big challenge to correct the development imbalances and to accord due priority to development in rural areas.
Ministry of Rural Development is implementing a number of programmes aimed at sustainable holistic development in rurual areas. The thrust of these programmes is on all round economic and social transformation in rural areas, though in multi-pronged strategy, aiming to reach out to the most disadvantaged sections of the society. Although concerted efforts have been initiated by the government of India through several plans and measures to alleviate poverty in rural India, there still remains much more to be done to bring propertiy in the lives of the people in rural areas.
At present, technology dissemination is uneven and slow in the rural areas. Good efforts of organisations developing technologies, devices and products for rural areas could not yield high success. Experiences of many countries suggest that technological development fuelled by demand has a higher dissemination rate. However, in India, technology developers for rural areas have been catering to needs, rather than creating demand.
There is no industry linkage machinery to create demand based-technology market for rural communities. Besides, there is also an imbalance between strategies and effective management programmes. Propagation of technolgy/schemes for rural development is slow and there is lack of wider participation of different stakeholders.
An ideal approach may therefore, include the government, panchayats, village personnel, researchers, industries NGOs and private companies to not only help in reducing this imbalance but also to have a multiplier effect on the overall economy.
21. According to the passage, which of the following are the objectives of most Rural Development Programmes?
A. To promote urbanisation.
B. Provide training to youth.
C. Reducing unemployment.
(a) A and C
(b) Only C
(c) B and C
(d) All of these
(e) Only A
22. As per the passage, the basic objectives of Rural Development Programmes have been alleviation of poverty and .......... through creation of basic social and economic infrastructure.
(a) dissemination
(b) unemployment
(c) attenuation
(d) infrastructure
(e) None of the above
23. According to the passage, experiences of many countries suggest that technological development fuelled by demand has a higher ......... rate.
(a) dissemination
(b) promulgation
(c) promotion
(d) circulation
(e) attenuation
24. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in the bold as used in the passage?
Propagation
(a) Dissemination
(b) Promulgation
(c) Promotion
(d) Circulation
(e) None of the above
25. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Urbanisation has resulted in a majority of Indian population living in urban areas.
B. The economic growth of the 10th five year plan did not translate into proportionate rural development.
C. The efforts of the government of India for poverty alleviation have been met with complete failure.
(a) A and B
(b) Only C
(c) A and C
(d) Only B
(e) All of the above
26. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in the bold used in the passage?
Touchstone
(a) Yardstick
(b) Periphery
(c) Sensitivity
(d) Weakners
(e) Hurdle
27. According to the passage, what ails the process of technology aided development in rural areas?
A. Creation of demand for technology aided development in rural areas is missing
B. There is lack of participation of rural people in the process of technology aided development
C. There is dearth of appropriate linkages needed for bringing about technology aided development.
(a) Only C
(b) B and C
(c) Only A
(d) A and B
(e) All of these
28. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?
(a) Technology in Rural India
(b) The Rural Indian Communities
(c) Rural Development-The Participative Way
(d) Rural India-Ignored by All the Stakeholders
(e) Rural Development-An impossible Dream
29. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in the bold as used in the passage?
Alleviation
(a) Reduction
(b) Attenuation
(c) Damp
(d) Diminish
(e) Assnage
30. Which of the followingis most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Equitable
(a) Troubled
(b) Unfair
(c) Separated
(d) Futuristic
(e) Just
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.
Confidence in the global economy is (151) improving, as evidenced by the bullish behaviour of financial markets and by increasingly positive comments from companies and policy makers over the past few weeks.
While economists have generally argued in (152) of a robust recovery, both in the world economy and in financial markets, it is when investors get (153) bullish that the pessimistic case deserves more (154).
Many of them believe that the current improvement in global conditions is just a blip and that the world faces years, if not decades, of ‘secular stagnation’. How (155) should we take these foreboding statements?
The good news is that there is not much (156) of secular stagnation in global statistics. For the world economy as a whole, the ‘new normal’ since 2008 has not, infact, been very (157) from the pre-crisis period. The average growth of the global economy, from 1988 to 2007, was 3.6%, according to the IMF’s Economic Outlook database. Its latest forecast for this year is the same, 3.6%, although the IMF Managing Director hinted at a modest (158) this week.
At first sight, this continuity from the pre-crisis decades seems (159) to square with the slowdown in economic activity in all major economies since 2008. The IMF expects only 2.2% growth this year in developed countries compared with an average of 2.8% during the two decades before the crisis. In the emerging economies, meanwhile, growth is (160) at 4.8% this year, slightly below the 4.9% of the pre-crisis decades.
31. (a) heavily
(b) steadily
(c) tremendously
(d) highly
(e) regularly
32. (a) approval
(b) favour
(c) account
(d) side
(e) grace
33. (a) together
(b) collective
(c) wild
(d) uniformly
(e) distributive
34. (a) weight
(b) meaning
(c) attraction
(d) notice
(e) attention
35. (a) easily
(b) seriously
(c) badly
(d) simply
(e) much
36. (a) evidence
(b) example
(c) sample
(d) clue
(e) information
37. (a) similar
(b) unlike
(c) distinctive
(d) different
(e) identical
38. (a) reduce
(b) crash
(c) subside
(d) flop
(e) decline
39. (a) hard
(b) default
(c) difficulty
(d) hit
(e) roughly
40. (a) highlighted
(b) depicted
(c) projected
(d) progressed
(e) assumed

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

 

Subject : General Awareness

1. India’s largest 700 MW ultra mega solar power plant is planned in the State of Madhya Pradesh in
(a) Bhopal district
(b) Ujjain district
(c) Khandwa district
(d) Rewa district
(e) Indore district
2. India’s Tax Administration Reform Commission submitted its first report to Finance Minister in the June, 2014 and this Commission is headed by
(a) YV Reddy
(b) D. Subba Rao
(c) Other than those given as options
(d) Parthasarathy Shome
(e) Bimal Jalan
3. The process by which the central bank of a country controls the supply of money in the economy by exercising its control over interest rates in order to maintain price stability and achieve high economic growth is known as
(a) Economic Policy
(b) Monetary Policy
(c) Fiscal Policy
(d) Credit Policy
(e) Budgetary Policy
4. Through the ‘Clean India’ campaign, the Union government has set a target to make country free from dysfunctional toilets by the year
(a) 2016 (b) 2017
(c) 2018 (d) 2019
(e) 2020
5. The Depositor Education & Awareness Fund (DEAF) has been set-up with
(a) Public Sector Banks
(b) Indian Banks Association
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
(e) Government of India
6. Who amongst the following has recently been selected to receive the 2014 Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award for his outstanding contribution towards the promotion of communal harmony, peace and goodwill?
(a) Dalai Lama
(b) Pt. Hari Prasad Chaurasia
(c) Shyam Benegal
(d) Muzaffar Ali
(e) Illayaraja

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7. The ‘World’s AIDS Day’ is observed throughout the world on
(a) first of December every year
(b) last Monday of September
(c) last Sunday of November
(d) first of November every year
(e) first Sunday of October
8. The ‘Cabinet Committee on Investments’ has been set-up to
(a) scrutinise investment proposals
(b) attract overseas investors
(c) facilitate stalled projects
(d) market the policies of the government
(e) clear investment proposals expeditiously
9. The official currency of the ‘Republic of Austria’ is
(a) Euro
(b) Peso
(c) Austrian pound
(d) Lira
(e) Austrian dollar
10. The host of the Eighteenth (2014) SAARC summit is
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) India
(c) Bhutan
(d) Pakistan
(e) Nepal
11. The remote sensing satellite ‘Yaogan XX’ has recently been put in orbit by
(a) Australia
(b) Singapore
(c) China
(d) Thailand
(e) New Zealand
12. Nobel laureate and recipient of the US Presidential Medal and also the US Congressional Medal, Muhammed Yunus is well-known for his contribution to Bangladesh’s
(a) consumer credit sector
(b) agro credit sector
(c) housing finance sector
(d) micro credit sector
(e) retail credit sector
13. During FIFA World Cup 2014, which player has broke the record for leading goal scorer in the World Cup tournaments?
(a) Lionel Messi
(b) Philip Lahm
(c) Paul Pogba
(d) Miroslav Klose
(e) Cristiano Ronaldo
14. Which of the following is the official Capital of Sweden?
(a) Belfast
(b) Rome
(c) Berne
(d) Stockholm
(e) Montreal
15. In which of the following States, there is no Regional Rural Bank?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Goa
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Punjab
(e) Himachal Pradesh
16. The abbreviation NTCA stands for
(a) National Thermal Control Authority
(b) National Terrorist Control Authority
(c) National Transportation Control Authority
(d) National Transport Corporation Authority
(e) National Tiger Conservation Authority
17. Gagan Narang is an Indian sportsman associated with
(a) Badminton
(b) Air rifle shooting
(c) Golf
(d) Wrestling
(e) Athletics
18. As stated by Arun Jaitley in his Budget Speech for 2014-15, the amount provided for 2014-15 for the Welfare of SC under the ‘SC Plan’ is
(a) Rs. 50548 crore
(b) Rs. 54548 crore
(c) Rs. 32548 crore
(d) Rs. 32387 crore
(e) Rs. 50387 crore
19. Lok Sabha Speaker Sumitra Mahajan has recently set-up a special committee to suggest measures for further strengthening of the security or the Parliament. The committee is headed by former
(a) Rajasthan DGP Harish Chandra Meena
(b) Delhi Police Commissioner Neeraj Kumar
(c) Union Home Secretary RK Singh
(d) CBI Director Amar Pratap Singh
(e) Mumbai Police Commissioner Satya Pal Singh
20. James Bond, often referred by his code name, 007 is the fictional protagonist of a series of novels and short stories, first published in 1953. The character was originally created by journalist and author
(a) John Pearson
(b) Kingsley Amis
(c) lan Fleming
(d) Raymond Benson
(e) Johan Gardner
21. In India, the regulator of the commodity market is
(a) Forward Markets Commission (FMC)
(b) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
(c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(d) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)
(e) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
22. For his role in one of the biggest corporate frauds in the country, market regulator SEBI recently barred B. Ramalinga Raju, founder and former Chairman of Satyam Computer Services from the market for a period of
(a) 18 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 21 years
(e) 14 years
23. As per Census 2011, the total population of India on March 1, 2011 was 1210.6 million. Of this, the urban population was
(a) 433.1 million
(b) 399.1 million
(c) 477.1 million
(d) 377.1 million
(e) 499.1 million
24. In order to promote financial inclusion, the Reserve Bank of India has recently allowed minors to operate bank accounts independently provided their age is above
(a) 14 years
(b) 13 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 10 years
(e) 8 years
25. Finance Minsiter Arun Jaitley recently announced launch of ‘Van Bandhu Kalyan Yojana’ for the welfare of
(a) Tribal Communities
(b) Economically Weaker Sections
(c) Minority Communities
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) Rural and Village Communities
26. The recent WTO talks failed to agree on TFA or Global Customs Rules. Expand the term TFA.
(a) Trade Fostering Agreement
(b) Trade Factoring Agreement
(c) Trade Facilitation Agreement
(d) Trade Featuring Agreement
(e) Other than those given as options
27. The Cabinet Minister for Road Transport, Highways and Shipping in the Union Cabinet is
(a) Nitin Jairam Gadkari
(b) D. Sadananda Gowda
(c) Piyush Goyal
(d) Rajnath Singh
(e) M. Venkaiah Naidu
28. The process of conversion of a physical cheque into electronic form is known as
(a) Cheque Negotiation
(b) Cheque Endorsement
(c) Cheque Truncation
(d) Cheque Alteration
(e) Cheque Crossing
29. The earlier system of Prime Lending Rate (PLR) has now been replaced by
(a) Reverse Repo Rate System
(b) Repo Rate System
(c) Exchange Rate System
(d) Bank Rate System
(e) Base Rate System
30. The Tata Sons - Singapore Airlines joint venture, which is expected to launch operations by October, has recently unveiled the brand namd of its new airline as
(a) Visage
(b) Vishal
(c) Vistara
(d) Vishwas
(e) Vistas
31. Which of the following Indian compaines recently crossed the Rs. 5 lakh crore mark in market cpitalisation to become the second most valuable IT services company in the world?
(a) HCL Technologies
(b) Wipro
(c) Tech Mahindra
(d) Tata Consultancy Services
(e) Infosys
32. As many as three Asiatic lions, brought from Gir Forest of Gujarat 57 years ago, which led to a population of 11 in last count in 1965, have vanished from the
(a) Kaziranga National Park in Asom
(b) Bandipur National Park in Karnataka
(c) Chandraprabha Wildlife Sanctuary near Varanasi
(d) Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh
(e) Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand
33. The Arjuna Awards selection committee for choosing outstanding sportspersons of the country for the year 2014 was headed by former Indian cricket captain
(a) Sourav Ganguly
(b) Sunil Gavaskar
(c) Rahul Dravid
(d) Azharuddin
(e) Kapil Dev
34. In his budget (2014-15) speech Finance Minister had announced setting of a Commission to look into various aspects of expenditure reforms. Accordingly an Expenditure Management Commission has recently been set-up. The Commission is headed by
(a) Subir Gokarn
(b) YV Reddy
(c) D. Subbarao
(d) Dr. Bimal Jalan
(e) Sumit Bose
35. A banknote, of which a portion is missing or which is composed of more than two pieces, is known as
(a) a mutilated banknote
(b) a counterfeit banknote
(c) a soiled banknote
(d) a damaged banknote
(e) a defective banknote
36. As per Article-104 of the Constitution, the seat is considered vacant, if a member is absent from either House of Parliament for a period of
(a) 30 days
(b) 91 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 60 days
(e) 120 days
37. The author of the book ‘Strictly Personal, Manmohan and Gursharan’ recently published by Harper Collins is
(a) Natwar Singh
(b) PC Parekh
(c) Gursharan Kaur
(d) Sanjaya Baru
(e) Daman Singh
38. The national capital of Brazil is
(a) Quito
(b) Santiago
(c) Salvador
(d) Brasilia
(e) Bogota
39. The scientist, who co-discovered the deadly ‘Ebola’ strain in 1976, is
(a) Peter Piot
(b) Butel Janet
(c) Paul Farrell
(d) Michel Heffernan
(e) Grahm David
40. In his Budget (2014-15) speech, Minister of Railways DV Sadananda Gowda has informed that the number of unmanned Level Crossings is around
(a) 11563
(b) 21348
(c) 21563
(d) 30348
(e) 11348

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

 

Subject:  Reasoning


Directions (Q.No. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
An organization wants to recruit system analysts. The following conditions apply.
The candidate must
(i) be an engineering graduate in computer/IT. with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of computer at least for 2 yr after acquiring the requisite qualification,
(iii) have completed minimum 25 yr and maximum 30 yr of age As on 1.12.2013.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for Rs 50000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test.
However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions Except
(a) at (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)-IT.
(b) at (iv) above, but has an experience of atleast 5 yr as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.
In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2013. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows

Give Answer

(1) If the case is to be referred to VP
(2) If the case is to be referred to GM
(3) If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision
(4) If the candidate is to be selected
(5) If the candidate is not to be selected
1. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 yr after completing engineering degree and has completed 27 yr of age. She is willing to sign the bond of Rs 50000.
2. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager for last 6 yr. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December, 1984. He is not willing to sign the bond for Rs50000.
3. Ramkumar is an Engineering graduate in computers with 78% marks passed out in 2007 at the age of 23 yr. Since, then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesn’t want to sign the bond for Rs 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.
4. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June, 2010 at the age of 22 yr. Since, then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond.
5. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 yr of age. She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.
Direction (Q.No. 6) Analyse the following passage and answer the question.

Some words are highly inflammable. Fusion is one of them. You can get two sets of people into a war mode by just uttering the words ‘fusion music’. One set will breathe fire and say it violates the purity of music the other set will tell you earnestly that it opens up the borders of music.

6. From the purists perspective, the ‘war’ between the two set of people can best be

(1) categorized as an ideological conflict between two ideas
(2) termed as a conflict between generations the younger versus the older generation
(3) an attempt to preserve the core principles
(4) seen as an attempt of people at the margin to occupy centre stage
(5) seen as preserving the social identity of purists

7. Unlike other retail outlets, where items are purchased in any number of units the customer wants, in super-markets items are grouped in bulk packages. This bulk buying offers saving to the customer. The option to buy at wholesale prices by buying in bulk makes super-market a “practical choice for budget-conscious consumers.

 

Which of the following assumption may be drived from the above information.
 

(1) Super-markets often have greater buying power and lower overhead costs, so they can offer a greater variety of products than regular retail outlets
(2) Super-markets are often more conveniently located and have better parking facilities
(3) The emergence of super-markets has caused many small retail stores to close down and thus eliminate competitions
(4) It is economically wise to buy single items since bulk packages seldom offer significant savings
(5) The financial savings from purchasing bulk packages may outweigh the inconvenience of being unable to purchase in any number of units that suits the customers’ need

8. Nations do not complete with each other in the way corporations do.

 

Which of the following most favours the weakness of the argument ?

(1) Trade deficit is a sign of national strength, profits are a sign of corporate strength
(2) Increase in human development index improves national standing, increase in market share improves corporate standing
(3) Climate change negotiations lead to global improvement; CSR initiatives lead to image improvement
(4) Nations go to war to capture territory, corporates contend against each other to capture market share
(5) None of the above

9. Civilization has taught us to be friendlier towards one another
Which of the following most favours the strengthens of the argument?

(1) Cats are loyal to their children, whereas men are loyal to their communities
(2) Elephants move in a herd, whereas men live in nuclear families
(3) Lions protect their own territories, whereas men capture other men’s territories
(4) Nilgai and Cheetal stay together, whereas men of one race dominate another
(5) None of the above

10. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions.
Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument?

(1) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(2) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(3) The average salary for recent Ph.D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics
(4) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions has been higher than the rate of growth of salaries for academic positions for the past three years
(5) None of the above

Directions (Q. Nos 11 -13) Study the information given below carefully to answer the following questions.
In a certain code language the following lines written as

 
‘lop eop aop fop’ means ‘Traders are above laws’
‘fop cop bop gop’ means ‘Developers were above profitable’
‘aop bop uop qop’ means ‘Developers stopped following traders’
‘cop jop eop uop’ means ‘Following maps were laws’

11. ‘Developers are following laws’ would be correctly written as

(1) ‘bop cop uop eop’
(2) ‘lop bop eop uop’
(3) ‘oup cop lop aop’
(4) ‘gop cop uop qop’
(5) None of these

12. ‘qop gop cop eop’ would correctly mean

(1) profitable laws were stopped
(2) developers stopped following laws
(3) traders were above profitable
(4) were laws profitable traders
(5) None of the above

13. ‘aop qop bop’ would correctly mean

(1) following were above
(2) traders stopped developers
(3) developers are laws
(4) traders above stopped
(5) laws are stopped
Directions (Q.Nos. 14-18) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements- to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

14. Statements All petals are flowers. Some flowers are buds. Some buds are leaves. All leaves are plants.

 

Conclusions 

I. Some petals are not buds.
II. Some flowers are plants.
III. No flower is plant.(1) Only I follows
(2) Either II or III follows
(3) I and II follow
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of the above

15. Statements Some pens are keys. Some keys are locks. All locks are cards. No card is paper.

 

Conclusions

I. No lock is paper.
II. Some cards are keys.
III. Some keys are not paper.
(1) I and II follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) All follow
(5) None follows

16. Statements Some pearls are gems. All gems are diamonds. No diamond is stone. Some stones are corals.

 

Conclusions

I. Some stones are pearls.
II. Some corals being diamond is a possibility.
III. No stone is pearl.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) None of these

17. Statements Some apartments are flats. Some flats are buildings. All buildings are bungalows. All bungalows are gardens.

 

Conclusions

I. All apartments being building is a possibility
II. All bungalows are not buildings.
III. No flat is garden.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) II and III follow
(5) Only II follows

18.  Statements All chairs are tables. All tables are bottles. Some bottles are jars. No jar is bucket.

 

Conclusions

 I. Some tables being jar is a possibility.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. Some bottles are not bucket.
(1) Only I follows (2) I and II follow
(3) All follow (4) Only II follows
(5) None of these

19. A person starts from point P in East and moves 12 m to point Q. Then, he moves right 8 m to point R. Again he moves right for 6m to point S. Then, he moves 6 m in the North to point T. Finally from there he goes to left for 6 m to point U. Which of three point he would form a triangle whose all the angles are less than 90°.

(1) PTQ
(2) QTR
(3) UTS
(4) TSR
(5) SQR

Directions (Q.Nos. 20-25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each one of them belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR, Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the right of G.C faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the person working in the HR department immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work in the HR department. A works in Investment Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in Investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to the immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits to the immediate left of the person who works for Operations department.

 

20. For which of the following departments does B work?

(1) Finance
(2) Marketing
(3) HR
(4) Corporate Finance
(5) Operations

21. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales department ?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the right

22. Who sits to the immediate right of E ?

(1) The person who works for Marketing department
(2) C
(3) B
(4) The person who works for HR department
(5) A

23. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who works for HR department?

(1) B
(2) The person who works for Marketing department
(3) The person who works for Operations department
(4) D
(5) G

24. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for Marketing and Investment banking departments when counted for the left hand side of the person working for Marketing department?

(1) F and G
(2) E and C
(3) C and B
(4) F and D
(5) B and D

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25. How many people sit between the person who works for Operations department and A, when counted from the right hand side of A?

(l) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

Directions (Q.Nos. 26-30) In these questions the symbols @, #, $, % and « are used with different meanings as follow
‘A @ B ‘ means ‘A is not smaller then B’.
‘A # B ‘ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’. ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.
‘A « B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.
In each questions, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions 1,11 and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion (s) is/are definitely true?

 

26. Statements V $ Y, Y @ Z, Z % X, X # T

 

Conclusions

I. T#Z
II. X#Y
III. z«y
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) II and III follow
(4) I and III follow
(5) Only III follows

27. Statements

R @ J, J % F, F « E, E % M
Conclusions I. M # J
II. F % M
III. M « R
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) All follow

28. Statements

H # R R @ L, L « W, W % F
Conclusions I. H # J
II. F # L
III. H $ F
(1) Only I follows
(2) I and II follow
(3) II and III follow
(4) Either I or II follows
(5) All follow

29. Statements

M # K, M $ F, F % Q, Q « H

Conclusions

 I. H # K
II. Q # K
III. Q @ M
(1) I and II follow
(2) Either I or II follows
(3) All follow
(4) II and III follow
(5) None of the above

30. Statements

 D « Q, Q $ L, L # T, T % H

Conclusions

I. D « L
II. L @ H
III. H # L
(1) Only I follows
(2) I and II follow
(3) Either II or III follows
(4) All follow
(5) None of these

31. In a code language ‘PROVIDE’ is written as ‘MULYFGB’, then what will be code for ‘BECAUSE’ in same languages

(1) YZHDRVB
(2) ZHYDRVB
(3) YHZDRVB
(4) ZYDHVBR
(5) None of these

Directions (Q.Nos. 32-36) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer

(1) If the data is Statements I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(3) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
(4) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
(5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

32. How’ many children are there in the group if no two children have same weight?

 

Statements

I. Sahil is fifth from the top in order of weight if all the children in the group were arranged in descending order.
II. Ramesh, who in heavier than 14 children in the group is immediately next to Sahil in weight.

33. What is the code for ‘healthy’ in the code language? 

Statements

I. In the code language ‘eat healthy food’ is written as ‘ka ma re’.
II. In code language ‘food for healthy people’ is written as ‘ta ma jo re’.

34.

 How many brothers does ‘H’ have ?

Statements

I. ‘H’ is sister of ‘K’ who is son of T
II. T is mother of ‘K’ who is brother of ‘H’.

35.

 Who among J,T,W,R and Q reached the office first ?

Statements

 I. J reached before Q, R and T but after W.
II. Q reached before R but after W.

36.

 Village f is in which direction with respect to village ‘K’ ?

Statements

I. Village ‘J’ is to the East of village ‘F’ and to the North of village ‘K’.
II. Village ‘R’, which is to the South of village ‘F’ is to the West of village ‘K’.

37. The increase in the number of newspaper articles exposed as fabrications serves to bolster the contention that publishers are more interested in boosting circulation than in printing the truth, Even’ minor publications have staff to check such obvious fraud.
Which of the following may be the assumption of the given argument?
(1) Newspaper stories exposed as fabrication are a recent phenomenon
(2) Everything a newspaper print must be factually verifiable
(3) Fact checking is more comprehensive for minor publications that for major ones
(4) The publishers of newspapers are the people who decide what to print in their newspapers
(5) None of the above

38. The rate of violent crime in this state is upto 30% from last year. The fault lies entirely in our system of justice. Recently our judges’ sentences have been so lenient that criminals can now do almost anything without fear of a long prison term.
The argument above would be weakened if it were true that

(1) 85% of the other States in the nation have lower crime rates than does this state
(2) white-collar crime in this state has also increased by over 25% in the last year
(3) 35% of the police in this state have been laid off in the last year due to budget cuts
(4) polls show that 65% of the population in this state opposes capital punishment
(5) None of the above

39.

 All German philosophers, except for Marx, are idealists. From which of the following can the statement above be most properly inferred?
(1) Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he German
(2) Marx is the only non-German philosopher who is an idealist
(3) If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he or she is not Marx
(4) Aside from the philosopher Marx, If someone is a German, then he or she is an idealist
(5) None of the above

40.

During the SARS days, about 23,500 doctors who had treated SARS sufferers died and about 23,670 doctors who had not engaged in treatment for SARS sufferers died. On the basis of those figures, it can be concluded that it was not much more dangerous to participate in SARS treatment during the SARS day than it was not to participate in SARS treatment.

Which of the following would reveal most clearly the absurdity of the conclusion drawn above?

(1) Counting deaths among doctors who had participated in SARS treatment in addition to deaths among doctors who had not participated is SARS treatment
(2) Expressing the difference between the numbers of deaths among doctors who had treated SARS sufferers and doctors who had not treated SARS suffers as a percentage of the total number of deaths
(3) Separating deaths caused by accidents during the treatment to SARS suffers from deaths caused by infect of SARS suffers
(4) Comparing death rates per thousand members of each group rather than comparing total numbers of deaths
(5) None of the above

Directions (Q.Nos. 41-44) Read the following passage carefully and answer the Question given below it.

Six friends Abhishek, Deepak, Mridul, Pritam, Ranjan and Salil married within a year in the months of February, April, July, September, November and December and in the cities of Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata, but not necessarily following the above order. The brides names were Geetika, Jasmine, Hema, Brinda, Ipsita and Veena, once again not following any order. The following are some facts about their weddings.
(i) Mridul’s wedding took place in Chennai, however he was not married to Geetika or Veena
(ii) Abhishek’s wedding took place in Ahmedabad and Ranjan’s in Delhi; however neither of them was married to Jasmine or Brinda
(iii) The wedding in Kolkata took place in February
(iv) Hema’s wedding took place in April, but not in Ahmedabad
(v) Geetika and Ipsita got married in February and November and in Chennai and Kolkata but not following the above order
(vi) Pritam visited Bengaluru and Kolkata only after his marriage in December
(vii) Salil was married to Jasmine to September

41. Hema’s husband is

(1) Abhishek
(2) Deepak
(3) Ranjan
(4) Pritam
(5) Mridul

42.

 Deepak’s wedding took place in
(1) Bengaluru
(2) Mumbai
(3) Kolkata
(4) Delhi
(5) Chennai

43.

In Mumbai, the wedding of one of the friends took place in the month of
(1) April
(2) September
(3) November
(4) December
(5) July

44.

 Salil’s wedding was held in
(1) Bengaluru
(2) Chennai
(3) Kolkata
(4) Delhi
(5) Mumbai

Directions (Q.Nos. 45-50) Given an input line the machine arranges the words and numbers in steps in a systematic manner as illustrated below.
 
Input 59 dress fine shine 32 66 72 offer
Step I 72 56 dress fine shine 32 66 offer
Step II 72 shine 56 dress fine 32 66 offer
Step III 72 shine 66 56 dress fine 32 offer
Step IV 72 shine 66 offer 56 dress fine 32
Step V 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine dress 32
Step VI 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine 32 dress
STEP VI is the last step and the output in Step VI is the final output.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

45. Step IV of an input is ’62 sound 56 sleep roam present 33 49'. What will be the input definitely ?

(1) Sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(2) Sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49
(3) 62 Sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above

46. Which of the following will be the third step for input ‘jockey firm 36 43 growth chart 22 45 ?

(1) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22
(2) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22
(3) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22
(4) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22
(5) None of the above

47. Step n of an input is ‘53’ window 42 50 door lock key 36'. How many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six
(5) None of these

48. What will be the fifth step of an input whose first step is ’85 journey train 36 54 daily 28 mansion’ ?

(1) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36
(2) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28
(3) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28
(4) There is no such step
(5) None of the above

49. Which step will be the last step for an input whose second step is ‘63’ Sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise’ ?

(1) IV
(2) V
(3) VIII
(4) VII
(5) None of these

50.

 Which word/number will be sixth from right in step fifth whose second step is ’63 Sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise’?
(1) Rise
(2) 56
(3) Sour
(4) 32

Printed Study Material for IBPS PO Exam

 

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Posted: 30 Aug 2017 11:34 PM PDT

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IBPS CWE (PO/MT) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

 

Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest?
(1) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
(2) Database, file, record, field, character
(3) Character, record, field, database, file
(4) Character, file, record, field, database
(5) Character, field, record, file, database
2. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the web are called
(1) Web browsers
(2) Information engines
(3) Data engines
(4) Search engines
(5) None of these
3. What is the term for unsolicited e-mail?
(1) Flamming
(2) Usenet
(3) Spam
(4) Backbone
(5) News Group
4. Processor speed is measured in
(1) bytes
(2) gigabytes
(3) gigahertz
(4) megabytes
(5) kilobytes
5. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?
(1) Ctrl + H
(2) Alt + S
(3) Shift + E
(4) Ctrl+A
(5) Ctrl + K
6. The buying or selling of goods over the internet is termed as
(1) e-selling
(2) e-buying
(3) e-business
(4) e-commerce
(5) e-transaction
7. What are the programs that block access

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