BANK EXAM PORTAL : Online Community for BANK Exams.: (Notification) Recruitment of Lower Division Clerk (Ldc) - 2017

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Posted: 01 Sep 2017 02:55 AM PDT

 

(Notification) Recruitment of Lower Division Clerk (Ldc) - 2017

 

LOWER DIVISION CLERK (LDC) COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION - 2017

1. The Agricultural Scientists Recruitment Board (ASRB) will hold computer Based Test (CBT) in Online mode for Recruitment to the followings Posts under Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), an autonomous body under Dept. of Agricultural Research & Education, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Govt. of India:
(i) 78 posts of Lower Division Clerk (LDC) at ICAR HQ, New Delhi in the Pay Band – I, Rs. 5200 – 20200 + Grade Pay of Rs. 1900. [Since revised to Level 2as per 7th CPC]

IMPORTANT DATES:

SI.No.ActivityDate & Time
1Start of Online Registration of Application31.08.2017 (10.00 am onwards)
2Closing of Online Registration of Application25.09.2017 (upto 05.00 pm)
3Editing of Application Form26-28.09.2017 (upto 05.00 pm)
4Downloading of Admission Certificate14.10.2017 (10.00 am onwards)
5Examination for the LDC29.10.2017 (10:00 A.M. to 12:00 Noon)
6Examination for the Stenographer Grade-III29.10.2017 (02:30 P.M. to 04:30 P.M.)

CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:-

Centres of Examination, where the exam will be conducted in Online Computer Based Test (CBT) mode and for Skill Test are mentioned in Annexure-I and Annexure-II respectively. The Centres and date(s) of holding the Examinations as mentioned above could be changed at the discretion of ASRB. Candidates must select the centre of examination carefully. No request for change of centre would be entertained.
LOWER DIVISION CLERK EXAMINATION - 2017
Centre CodeCentreState
01AhmedabadGujarat
02BengaluruKarnataka
03BhopalMadhya Pradesh
04BhubaneswarOdisha
05ChandigarhU.T.
06ChennaiTamil Nadu
07CochinKerala
08DehradunUttarakhand
09Delhi/NCRDelhi / NCR
10GuwahatiAssam
11HyderabadTelangana
12JodhpurRajasthan
13KolkataWest Bengal
14LucknowUttar Pradesh
15MumbaiMaharashtra
16NagpurMaharashtra
17PatnaBihar
18Port BlairAndaman & Nicobar Islands
19ShimlaHimachal Pradesh
20SrinagarJammu & Kashmir
21VaranasiUttar Pradesh
CENTRES OF EXAMINATION FOR SKILL TEST
LOWER DIVISION CLERK EXAMINATION  -2017
The candidates will be required to indicate the choice of the centres for Skill Test from amongst following centres in the Application Form:
Centre CodeCentre*State
01BengaluruKarnataka
02Barapani (Shillong)Meghalaya
03BhubaneswarOdisha
04CochinKerala
05Delhi / NCRDelhi / NCR
06HyderabadTelangana
07JammuJammu & Kashmir
08KolkataWest Bangal
09LucknowUttar Pradesh
10MumbaiMaharashtra

VACANCY

DETAILS OF VACANCY POSITION FOR LOWER DIVISION CLERK at ICAR HQRS
S. No.CategoryNo. of vacancies
1Unreserved36
2Scheduled Castes (SC)16
3Scheduled Tribe (ST)11
4Other Backward Classes (OBC)15
5Divyang01
6Ex-Servicemen (Ex-S)06
Total:78*

PRESCRIBED QUALIFICATIONS

(i) For Stenographers Grade-III posts
Educational- A candidate must be 12th class pass or equivalent from a recognised Board/University, completed on or before the closing date for submission of online application.
Professional Efficiency- The candidates will be given one dictation test in English or in Hindi at 80 w.p.m. for 10 minutes. The candidates who opt to take the test in English will be required to transcribe the matter in 50 minutes on computer and the candidates who opt to take the test in Hindi will be required to transcribe the matter in 65 minutes on computer.

AGE LMIT:-

A candidate must have attained the age of 18 years but not have attained the age of 27 years as on the closing date of online applications. Age relaxation is admissible to the various categories as per Rule 4 of the Rules of the Examination as given in Annexure–V for the posts of Stenographers Grade-III and Annexure-VI for the posts
of LDC respectively.

REGISTRATION FEE: -

SI. No.Category of candidateFee (Rs.)
1Unreserved (UR) / Other Backward Class (OBC)200/-
2Scheduled Caste (SC)/ Scheduled Tribe (ST)/ Divyang/ Ex-Serviceman/ Women candidateNIL

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION INCLUDING SYLLABUS:-

Detailed scheme of Examination including syllabus is given in Appendix-I to Annexure–V for the posts of Stenographers Grade-III and in Appendix-I to AnnexureVI
for the posts of LDC respectively.
SCHEME OF EXAMINATION FOR LOWER DIVISION CLERK
SCHEME OF EXAMINATION: The examination will consist of written examination and Typing Test:
(A) SCHEME OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION AND SYLLABUS
The written examination will consist of one objective type paper as shown below:
PartSubjectMax. Marks
Total Duration/Timing
for all Candidates except VDfor Visually Divyang candidates
IGeneral Intelligence (50 Questions)502 Hours2 Hours 40 Mins
IIEnglish Language (Basic Knowledge) (50 Questions)50
IIINumerical Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skill) (50 Questions)50
IVGeneral Awareness (50 Questions)50

HOW TO APPLY:-

A candidate seeking admission to the Examination must apply online in the prescribed Application Form available on the website: http://www.asrb.org.in. Important instructions to the candidates for filling online applications are given in Appendix-I.
A candidate must read the provisions, contained in this Notification carefully and abide by the same. A candidate must fulfil all the conditions of eligibility regarding age, educational qualifications, etc. prescribed for admission to the examination.
The candidates are not required to attach copy of any of the documents /certificates in support of their candidature at the time of submission of online application. The candidates who qualify the Examination as per prescribed standards and qualify for Skill Test call, will be required to submit the self-attested copies of the documents/certificates in support of their candidature along with the print-out of the online application form when called for Skill Test, failing which the candidate will not be allowed to appear in the Skill test. Mere issue of admit card for the examination should not be considered that the candidate is eligible for the post in all respects. Eligibility of a candidate is checked only after qualifying the skill test. Hence, a candidate should satisfy himself / herself about his / her eligibility for the post at the time of online registration.

MODE OF SELECTION: -

The minimum qualifying marks for the written examination (CBT) are as follows:
Srl. No.CategoryMinimum Qualifying Marks
1Unreserved (UR)45 %
2Other Backward Class (OBC)40 %
3Scheduled Caste (SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST)/ Divyang/ Ex-Serviceman35%
(i) Candidates who qualify the written examination (CBT) as per prescribed standards will be shortlisted for the Skill Test in the ratio of 20 candidates for each post i.e. 1:20 ratio.
(ii) The Board may change these qualifying marks as well as the prescribed ratio for all or any of the category at its sole discretion.

Click Here for Officical Notification

Courtesy : ASRB


Posted: 01 Sep 2017 02:47 AM PDT

Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Reasoning Set-6


1.Who among the following reads Outlook (H)?
(1)Can't say
(2)S
(3)P
(4)R
(5)None of these
2.R reads which of the following magazines?
(1)Can't say
(2)India Today (E)
(3)Businessworld
(4)Sportsstar
(5)None of these
3.Which of the following pairs of persons does not represent the couples?

I. W and VII.P and R
III. S and Q
(1)Can't say
(2)Only I
(3)Only II
(4)Only III
(5)All of the above pairs of persons represent the couples
4.How many sons does W have?
(1)Two
(2)Three
(3)One
(4)Can't say
(5)None of these
5.How is P related with U?
(1)Father
(2)Brother
(3)Husband
(4)Can't say
(5)None of these

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6.Statements:
(1)Some charts are darts.
(2)All darts are carts.
(3)Some carts are smarts.
Conclusions:I.Some charts are carts.
II.Some carts are darts.
III.Some darts are smarts.
IV.Some smarts are charts.
(1)Only I and III follow
(2)Only U and III follow
(3)I and II follow
(4)1, III and IV follow
(5)None of these
7.Statements :
(1)All boxes are tables.
(2)No desks are tables.
(3)Some desks are curtains.
Conclusions :I.No boxes are desks.
II.Some boxes are desks.
III.Some curtains are not boxes
IV.Some curtains are boxes.
(1)111 and either I or II follow
(2)I and either III or IV follow
(3)Either I or II, and either III or IV follow
(4)I and III follow
(5)None of these
8.Statements :
(1)Some drops are cups.
(2)All cups are docks.
(3)No dock is a flop.
Conclusions : I.Some drops are not flops.
II.Some docks are drops.
III.No cup is a flop.
IV.Some flops are not cups.
(1)I, II and III follow
(2)II, III and IV follow
(3)I, II and IV follow
(4)I, III and IV follow
(5)All follow
9.Statements :
(1)Some big are small.
(2)No small is large.
(3)Some large are tiny.
Conclusions : I.Some large are not big.
II. No big is large.
III. Some small are not tiny.
IV. Some big are not tiny.
(1)Only I follows
(2)Only II follows
(3)Only III follows
(4)Only IV follows
(5)None follows
10.Statements :
(1)No student is decent.
(2)Some decent are bags.
(3)All bags are roses.
Conclusions : I.Some bags are not students.
II.All bags are students.
III.Some decent are roses.
IV.All roses are decent.
(1)Only I follows
(2)Either I or II follows
(3)Only III follows
(4)Either I or II and III follow
(5)I and III follow

Answer:

 

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (5) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (5) 9. (5) 10. (5)

 

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Posted: 01 Sep 2017 01:48 AM PDT

(Paper) SBI CLERK MAIN EXAM, - 2016 "Held On 25-06-2016"


::GENERAL AWARENESS::


1. According to the current provisions of RBI Act, 1934, the RBI can issue banknotes in the denomination not more than
(1) 5,000/­
(2) 1,000/­
(3) 1,00,000/­
(4) 10,000/­
(5) 50,000/­
2. The Valmiki National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following states in India ?
(1) Gujarat
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Karnataka
(4) Assam
(5) Bihar
3. The low­cost train with wi­fi, entertainment screens and vending machines for passengers, recently announced by Indian Railways is :
(1) Humsafar Express
(2) Antyodaya” Express
(3) Tejas Express
(4) Deen Dayalu Express
(5) UDAY Express
4. In Shishudhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, the maximum loan which can be availed is :
(1) 5,00,000/­
(2) 1 category of Pra,00,000/­
(3) 10,00,000/­
(4) 50,000/­
(5) 10,000/­
5. Which of the following State’s capital has declared its own mascot ?
(1) Assam
(2) Karnataka
(3) Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Andhra Pradesh
(5) Himachal Pradesh
6. `NACH’ has been implemented by the National Payments Corporation of India for Banks, Financial Institutions, Corporate and Government. The full form of NACH is :
(1) National Automation Cleansing House
(2) National Automated Clearing House
(3) National Automatic Cleaning House
(4) National Automated Cleansing House
(5) National Automatic Cash House
7. `Wings of Fire’ is an autobiography of which of the following ?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(3) Yuvraj Singh
(4) Pranab Mukherjee
(5) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
8. The CRR and SLR are reserved in which form with the bank ?
(1) Cash and Liquidity
(2) Liquidity and Cash
(3) Both are reserved as cash
(4) Both are reserved as liquidity
(5) Both are reserved in other forms
9. The 11­digit alphanumeric code used to make all electronic money transactions across India is known as :
(1) MICR Code
(2) IFSC Code
(3) CCC
(4) LCLG
(5) BBB
10. India recently (January, 2016) has exported first batch of ‘Made in India’ metro coaches to Australia manufactured in
(1) Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh
(2) Ludhiana, Punjab
(3) Nagpur, Maharashtra
(4) Baroda, Gujarat
(5) Jaipur, Rajasthan
11. What is the current reverse repo rate in India ?

(1) 21%
(2) 6.50%
(3) 6%
(4) 7%
(5) 15%
12. The Ahmedabad City is located on the banks of

(1) Narmada river
(2) Sabarmati river
(3) Yamuna river
(4) Godavari river
(5) Tapti river
13. The currency of the Republic of Israel is :

(1) Peso
(2) New Shekel
(3) Jordanian Dinar
(4) Egyptian Pound
(5) Lira
14. Recently, an Indian sportsman Neeraj Chopra clinches silver medal in Warsaw, Poland. With which sport he is associated with ?
(1) Boxing
(2) Javelin Throw
(3) Athletics
(4) Judo
(5) Chess
15. The RIDF was set up by the Government in 1995­96 for financing ongoing rural infrastructure projects. The term`I’ in RIDF stands for
(1) Industry
(2) India
(3) Infrastructure
(4) Instruction
(5) International
16. India’s first Defence Industrial Park is located in :
(1) Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
(2) Mangalore, Karnataka
(3) Ottappalam, Kerala
(4) Surat, Gujarat
(5) Nagpur, Maharashtra
17. The Gobi is a large desert region in Asia. The desert is located in :
(1) India
(2) Russia
(3) China
(4) Nepal
(5) Iran
18. Recently (May 25,2016), the Kerala was given a new Chief Minister named
(1) Oommen Chandy
(2) V.S. Achuthanandan
(3) Pinarayi Vijayan
(4) K. Chandrashekar Rao
(5) N. Chandrababu Naidu
19. Anant Geete, represents which of the following constituency in Lok Sabha ?
(1) Raigad, Maharashtra
(2) Maval, Maharashtra
(3) Ratlam, Madhya Pradesh
(4) Tikamgarh, Madhya Pradesh
(5) Dharwad, Karnataka
20. HPCA stadium is a cricket stadium located in the city of :
(1) Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
(2) New Delhi
(3) Jaipur, Rajasthan
(4) Surat, Gujarat
(5) Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh
21. The ECGC limited provides export credit insurance support to Indian exporters and is controlled by the Ministry of Commerce. The term ‘G’ in abbreviation ECGC stands for :
(1) Global
(2) Guide
(3) Ground
(4) Guarantee
(5) Guest
22. Bank of India is headquartered in
(1) New Delhi
(2) Chennai
(3) Bengaluru
(4) Mumbai
(5) Kolkala
23. The Atomic Power Plant with largest capacity (540MW) is located in
(1) Kaiga Generating Station, Karnataka ,
(2) Rajasthan Atomic Power Station, Rajasthan
(3) Tarapur Atomic Power Station, Maharashtra
(4) Madras Atomic Power Station, Tamil Nadu
(5) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station, Gujarat
24. Recently (June, 2016), India is pulling all stops to raise funds for Chabahar port. The port is located in :
(1) Iraq
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) Iran
(5) Pakistan
25. Shri Piyush Goyal, who recently (June, 2016) launched Surya Mitra Mobile App is a
(1) Minister of State for Petroleum and Natural Gas
(2) Minister of State for Civil Aviation
(3) Minister of State for Railways
(4) Minister of State for Culture and Tourism
(5) Minister of State for Power, Coal and New Renewable Energy
26. July 28 is observed as the
(1) World Hepatitis Day
(2) International Yoga Day
(3) World UFO Day
(4) World Population Day
(5) World Environment Day
27. Which country recently (June, 2016) returned to India over 200 stolen cultural artifacts, some dating back 2,000 years ?
(1) United Kingdom
(2) United States
(3) Russia
(4) UAE
(5) South Africa
28. Wular Lake, one of the largest fresh water lake in Asia, is in the Indian State of
(1) Sikkim
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Uttarakhand
(4) Jammu & Kashmir
(5) Arunachal Pradesh
29. Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited is India’s first founded in August 2000.
(1) Debit Information Company
(2) Credit Insurance Company
(3) Debit Insurance Company
(4) Credit Information Company
(5) Credit Stabilising Corporation
30. In the context of banking, the term in MCLR stands for :
(1) Lending
(2) Loss
(3) Liquidity
(4) Lender
(5) Limited
31. Nairobi is the capital city of :
(1) Sudan
(2) Kenya
(3) South Africa
(4) Egypt
(5) Algeria
32. The International Development Association (IDA) is an international financial institution which offers concessional loans and grants to the world’s poorest developing countries. It is headquartered in :
(1) Washington D.C., U.S.
(2) Vienna, Austria
(3) New York, U.S.
(4) New Delhi, India
(5) Berlin, Germany
33. The Federal Reserve System­ also known as the Federal Reserve or simply as the Fed­ is the central banking system of the
(1) United Kingdom
(2) Russia
(3) Denmark
(4) United States
(5) France
34. KSE is a stock exchange index of which of the following country ?
(1) Pakistan
(2) India
(3) China
(4) Russia
(5) USA
35. Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, formerly known as Borjhar Airport, is situated at :
(1) Amravati, Andhra Pradesh
(2) Hyderabad, Telangana
(3) Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Guwahati, Assam
(5) Kolkata, West Bengal
36. Which of the following is not a motivational model ?
(1) Economic model
(2) Learning model
(3) Psycho­analytic model
(4) Organisational model
37. Regulatory Authority for Regional Rural Bank is of :
(1) Sponsor Bank
(2) State Government
(3) Central Government
(4) RBI and NABARD
(5) SEBI
38. The private sector bank which recently allowed children above 10 years to open savings bank accounts after SBI is :
(1) IDBI
(2) HDFC
(3) ICICI
(4) Axis Bank
(5) Kotak Mahindra Bank
39. A cheque which is payable to any person who presents it for payment at the bank counter is called
(1) Cross Cheque
(2) Bearer Cheque
(3) Open Cheque
(4) Close Cheque
(5) Lender Cheque
40. Which one of the following is not method of setting prices ?
(1) Cost plus pricing method
(2) Marginal cost pricing method
(3) Break­even­pricing method
(4) First­in­first­out cost method
(5) Other than those given as options
41. Bancassurance is a relationship between bank and
(1) Education
(2) Insurance Company
(3) Employee
(4) Customer
(5) NABARD
42. Marketing Strategy means
(1) to introduce in sales promotion scheme
(2) population
(3) preservance
(4) demands
(5) networth
43. Marketing should be resorted :
(1) Only among rich person
(2) Depends on income
(3) Only in crowded areas
(4) Depends on the product
(5) Only among the poor
44. The incumbent Governor of RBI is
(1) Arundhati Bhattacharya
(2) Raghuram Rajan
(3) U.K. Sinha
(4) D. Subbarao
(5) Y.V. Reddy
45. To survive in the growing competition banks need to implement
(1) Free schemes
(2) Service orientation
(3) Marketing orientation
(4) Core banking
(5) Low interest rates
46. The process of gathering information about customers or market is known as :
(1) Customer inspection
(2) Checking market area
(3) Need of a bank
(4) Market research
(5) Checking customers’ demand
47. When costs are accumulated for an organizational unit or department, it is called :
(1) a cost centre
(2) a cost benefit
(3) a cost breaking
(4) a cost of production
(5) unit cost
48. Developing and spreading persuasive communications about an offer or product is known as :
(1) Promotion
(2) Information
(3) Channel usage
(4) Distribution
(5) Other than those given as options
49. PMFBY is a scheme launched by Prime Minister Slid Narendra Modi in January, 2016. It is related to :
(1) Health insurance
(2) Bank insurance
(3) Crop insurance
(4) Accident insurance
(5) Business insurance
50. Which state government’s business is not transacted by RBI?
(1) Himachal Pradesh
(2) Jammu & Kashmir
(3) Manipur
(4) Assam
(5) Sikkim

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Posted: 31 Aug 2017 11:56 PM PDT

 

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

 

Subject : Quantitative Aptitude

1. A sold an article with 10% loss on the cost price. He bought the article at a discount of 20% on the labelled price. What would have been the percentage loss had he bought it at the labelled price?
(a) 34
(b) 18
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 28
(e) 16
Directions (Q. Nos. 2-6) Refer to the line graph and answer the given questions.
Data Related to Income and Expenditure (In Rs. Hundred) of a Businessman during 7 Years

Note
· Profit = Income – Expenditure
· Loss = Expenditure – Income
· Percent Profit = (Profit/Expenditure) × 100
· Percent Loss = (Loss/Expenditure) × 100
2. What is the average profit earned by the businessman in 2001, 2003, 2004, 2006 and 2007 together?
(a) Rs. 27400
(b) Rs. 28800
(c) Rs. 29200
(d) Rs. 26800
(e) Rs. 28400
3. What is the percent loss incurred by the businessman in 2002 and 2005 together?


4. The respective ratio of expenditure of the businessman in 2003 and 2008 was 7 : 13. If the end earned a profit of 19% in 2008, what was his income in that particular year?
(a) Rs. 94060
(b) Rs. 93720
(c) Rs. 92820
(d) Rs. 90560
(e) Rs. 88760
5. What is the approximate percent profit earned by the businessman in 2004 and 2007 together?
(a) 73
(b) 79
(c) 77
(d) 69
(e) 64

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6. What is the ratio between profit earned by the businessman in 2003 and 2006 together and loss incurred by him in 2002 and 2005 together?
(a) 9 : 8
(b) 11 : 8
(c) 17 : 14
(d) 7 : 6
(e) 13 : 12
7. In a class, the average age of both male and female students together is 18 years. The total age of these 15 female students is 240. Definitely how many male students are there in the class?
(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) Data provided are inadequate to answer the question
(e) 25
Directions (Q. Nos. 8-12) In the given questions, two equations are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
8.
I. x2 + 3x – 28 = 0
II. y2 – y – 20 = 0


9.
I. 5x2 + 11x + 6 = 0
II. y2 + 34y – 336 = 0


10.
I. 2x2  + 18x + 40 = 0
II. 2y2 + 15y + 27 = 0


11.
I. 6x2 – 29x + 35 = 0
II. 3y2 – 11y + 10 = 0


12.
I. x2 + x – 20 = 0
II. y2 – y – 30 = 0


Directions (Q. Nos. 13-17) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given number series?
13. 3600 1800 600 150 30 ?
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 15
(e) 7.5
14. 33 16.5 ? 24.75 49.5 123.75
(a) 16.5
(b) 13.5
(c) 22.5
(d) 20.5
(e) 12.5
15. 20 23 30 43 64 ?
(a) 85
(b) 92
(c) 95
(d) 99
(e) 88
16. 44 ? 99 148.5 222.75 334.125
(a) 72
(b) 77
(c) 66
(d) 54
(e) 84
17. 2 4 10 ? 82 244
(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 46
(d) 48
(e) 34
Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) Study the table and answer the given questions :
Data Related to Number of Employees in Six
Companies During 6 Years

M = Male; F = Female
18. What is the difference between average number of male employees in all the given companies in 2006 and average number of female employees in all the given companies in 2009?
(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 58
(d) 52
(e) 74

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19. Total number of female employees in company L in 2004, 2005, 2006 and 2007 together is what percent more than the total number of female employees in company T in the same years together? (Rounded off to nearest integer)
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 18
(d) 12
(e) 16
20. In which of the given years is percentage increase in the number of male employees of company T from previous year the highest ?
(a) 2009
(b) 2007
(c) 2008
(d) 2005
(e) 2006
21. Total number of female employees in company J during all the given years together is what percent of the total number of male employees in company I during all the given years together?
(a) 87
(b) 93
(c) 89
(d) 91
(e) 95
22. What is the respective ratio between total number of employees (male and female) in companies J, K and N together in 2006 and total number of employees (male and female) in the same companies together in 2007?
(a) 11 : 16
(b) 13 : 16
(c) 9 : 14
(d) 11 : 18
(e) 13 : 18
23. The numerical value of area of a rectangular field is 90 times the numerical value of its breadth. If the perimeter of field is 240 metres, what is the breadth of the field ?
(a) 60 m
(b) Data provided are not inadequate to answer the question
(c) 30 m
(d) 20 m
(e) 15 m
24. A’s monthly income is Rs. 10000 less than B’s monthly income. B’s monthly income is Rs. 15000 less than C’s monthly income. If the total monthly income of A, B and C together is Rs. 65000. What is A’s monthly income?
(a) Rs. 10000
(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 20000
(d) None of the answers given is correct
(e) Rs. 5000
25. The total present ages of P and Q is 25 years more than the present age of R. If at present Q is 5 years older than R, what is P’s present age?
(in years)
(a) 20
(b) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(c) 40
(d) 35
(e) 30
26. The difference between the total simple interest and total compound interest compounded annually at the same rate of interest on a sum of money at the end of two years is Rs. 50. What is definitely the rate of interest percent per annum?
(a) 10
(b) 4
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 5
(e) 7.5
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-31) What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
27.
(a) 185
(b) 395
(c) 295
(d) 245
(e) 355
28.
(a) 88
(b) 44
(c) 72
(d) 50
(e) 64
29. 
(a) 525
(b) 455
(c) 645
(d) 395
(e) 275
30. 
(a) 32
(b) 39
(c) 24
(d) 28
(e) 12
31. 12.95 × 7.05 + 85.012 × 10.99 = ?
(a) 77586
(b) 77776
(c) 79566
(d) 78356
(e) 76876
32. One-fourth of two-fifth of 30% of a number is 15. What is 20% of that number?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 200
(e) 75
33. The ratio between the base and height of a right angled triangle is 4 : 5, respectively. If the area of the right angled triangle is 80 sq cm, what is the height of the triangle?

Directions (Q. Nos. 34-38) Read the information given in the passage and answer the given questions:
There are 19000 students in College ‘P’. Each of them are studying either one or more of the given languages – Japanese,Korean and Latin. The respective ratio of male and female students is 9 : 11.
14% of the male students study only Japanese. 12% study only Korean and 20% study only Latin. 16% of the male students study only Japanese and Korean, 22% study only Korean and Latin and 8% study only Japanese and Latin. The remaining male students study all the given languages.
22% of the female students study only Japanese, 18% study only Korean and 20% study only Latin. 12% of the female students study only Japanese and Korean, 16% study only Korean and Latin and 10% study only Japanese and Latin. The remaining female students study all the given languages.
34. Number of male students who study more than one of the given languages is what percent more than the number of female students who study more than one of the given languages?

35. How many male students study Japanese?
(a) 3389
(b) 3572
(c) 3933
(d) 3782
(e) 3258
36. What is the respective ratio between number of male students who study Korean and number of female students who study the same?
(a) 58 : 59
(b) 57 : 88
(c) 87 : 88
(d) 63 : 64
(e) 61 : 62
37. What is the difference between number of female students who study Latin and number of male students who study the same?
(a) 43
(b) 76
(c) 83
(d) 62
(e) 57
38. Number of male students who do not study Korean is what percent of the number of female students in college P?

39. The sum of two even numbers is 6 more than twice of the smaller number. If the difference between these two numbers is 6, what is definitely the smaller number?
(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 12
(e) 24
40. Sixteen men and twelve women together can complete a work in eight days. Twenty men can complete the same work in sixteen days. How many days will sixteen women take to complete the same work?
(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 24
(d) 20
(e) 10

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

 

Subject : Computer Knowledge

1. Another name for a program is
(a) software
(b) procedure
(c) typology
(d) utilities
(e) userware
2. ................ is a communications technology used by some incoming mail services.
(a) Telnet
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) GIF
(e) POP3
3. The two basic parts of URLs are
(a) ICP and IP
(b) TCP/IP and ISP
(c) TCP and ftp
(d) destination and device
(e) the protocol and the domain name
4. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into
(a) information
(b) programs
(c) objects
(d) charts
(e) websites
5. The ........... database is the most widely used database structur
(a) hierarchical
(b) general
(c) standard
(d) table
(e) relational

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6. Mail from unwanted senders can be blocked by
(a) not buying anything online so that junk mail senders will not having anything to benefit by
(b) sending them nasty replies when they send any mail
(c) using mail filters
(d) clicking the unsubscribe link
(e) e-mailing them and asking to the removed from the list
7. POP denotes
(a) Post Office Program
(b) Post Office Protocol
(c) Protocol on Program
(d) Protocol on Protocol
(e) Program of of Programmer
8. How many gigabytes are there in a petabyte?
(a) 1000
(b) 001
(c) 100
(d) 1000000
(e) 5000000
9. For a browser to connect to other resources, the location or address of the resources must be specified. These addresses are called
(a) MSN
(b) e-mail forms
(c) packets
(d) IDs
(e) URLs
10. The extensions .gov, .edu, .mil, and .net are c
(a) mail to addresses
(b) add-ons
(c) domain codes
(d) DNSs
(e) e-mail targets
11. Software that is actively utilised by end-users (like Word or Photoshop) is called
(a) actionware
(b) operating system
(c) system software
(d) driver
(e) application software
12. Using a ............ helps to place an image into a live video conference.
(a) printer
(b) digital camera
(c) video camera
(d) webcam
(e) scanner
13. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources are called
(a) operating system
(b) helper software
(c) system software
(d) application software
(e) utility programs
14. A rectangular area on a computer screen that can contain a document, program or messages is referred to as a (n)
(a) field
(b) opening
(c) window
(d) tuplet
(e) cell
15. The storage locations in the internal storage of a CPU are called
(a) reference points
(b) addresses
(c) contents
(d) mask
(e) locations
16. Of the following types of computers, which is the most powerful?
(a) Laptop
(b) Mainframe computer
(c) Minicomputer
(d) Supercomputer
(e) Microcomputer
17. An input device, which can read characters directly from an ordinary piece of paper, is
(a) OMR
(b) POS
(c) OCR
(d) MSI
(e) CD
18. The radian of a number system
(a) has nothing to do with digit position value
(b) equals the number of its distinct counting digits
(c) is more than the number of its distinctcounting digits
(d) is always an even number
(e) is variable
19. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) passwords are case sensitive.
(b) passwords are not echoed on the screen for security resasons.
(c) A good password should be no more than six characters long.
(d) password is a secret code that authenticates a person to the computer.
(e) passwords should be changed frequently

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20. The most common method for gaining access to the internet is through a
(a) dumb terminal
(b) keyboard
(c) provider or host computer
(d) virtual provider provider or computer
(e) point-to-point computer
21. Which of the following is a format for storing and backing up computer data on tape that evolved from the Digital Audio Tape (DAT) technology?
(a) Audio interchange file format
(b) Digital data storage
(c) Virtual tape system
(d) Tape archive
(e) Data aggregation
22. A compiler means
(a) keypunch operator
(b) computer data collector
(c) a person who compiles source programs
(d) a program which translates source program into object program
(e) the same thing as a programmer
23. Specialised programs designed to allow particular input or output devices to communicate with the rest of the computer system are called
(a) compilers
(b) action drivers
(c) interpreters
(d) device drivers
(e) operating systems
24. .......... get transmitted across the web by harmful chain letters and hoaxes.
(a) Flames and infections
(b) Flames
(c) Wamings
(d) Viruses
(e) Infections
25. ATM machines run .......... OS.
(a) network
(b) web
(c) embedded
(d) disintegrated
(e) open source
26. Moving from one website to another is called
(a) jumping
(b) applying
(c) surfing
(d) moving
(e) shifting
27. In a client/server network, the user's computer is considered the
(a) client
(b) website
(c) library
(d) server
(e) hoster
28. A program that is used to view websites is called a
(a) word processor
(b) spreadsheet
(c) browser
(d) web viewer
(e) viewer
29. The physical component of a computer that processes data in order to create information is called the
(a) specialware
(b) typology
(c) software
(d) hardware
(e) compiler
30. An emerging trend is to free users from owning and storing applications by using
(a) word processing packages
(b) backup applications
(c) applications packages
(d) storage packages
(e) web-based applications
31. Which is a secondary memory device?
(a) Mouse
(b) Floppy disk
(c) Scanner
(d) CPU
(e) ALU
32. Which of the following is possible with open architecture?
(a) A minimum of six new devices to be added to a computer
(b) Hot swapping of devices.
(c) Users to upgrade and add new devices as they come on the market.
(d) All hardware, input and output devices to be located in one efficient box
(e) A minimum of four new devices to be added to a computer.
33. ............. are special visual and sound effects contained in presentation graphics file.
(a) Attractions
(b) Simulations
(c) Animatronics
(d) Graphics
(e) Animations
34. Step-by-step instructions that run the computer are
(a) CPUs
(b) Programs
(c) Solutions
(d) Hardware
(e) Documents
35. The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language is known as
(a) processing
(b) algorithming
(c) coding
(d) file
(e) instrucitoning
36. Which of the following refers to too much electricity and may cause a voltage surge
(a) Shock
(b) Anomaly
(c) Splash
(d) Spike
(e) Virus
37. Rules for exchaning data between computers are called

(a) procedures
(b) protocols
(c) hyperlinks
(d) programs
(e) hyper-actions
38. Which of the following is used to write webpages?
(a) URL
(b) HTML
(c) HTTP
(d) FTP
(e) Telnet
39. ........... is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network.
(a) Network client
(b) Desktop
(c) Network switch
(d) Network station
(e) Network server
40. Raw, unprocessed facts, including text, numbers, images and sounds, are calle
(a) applets
(b) data
(c) melaware
(d) items
(e) java

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

 

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude


Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three Statements I, II and III. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.

91. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?

I. 10 men finish the work in 6 days.
II. 10 women and 10 men finish the work in days.
III. If 10 men work 3 days and after that 10 women are deployed to work for men, the rest work is finished in 4 days.
(1) I and II
(2) Any two of three
(3) I and III
(4) II and III
(5) None of these

92. What is the present age of Sabir?

I. The present age of Sabir is half of his father’s age.
II. After five years the ratio of ages of Sabir and his father is 6:11.
III. Sabir is younger to his brother by five years.
(1) 1 and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these
(5) Cannot be determined

93. What is two digit number?

I. The difference between the number and the number formed by interchanging the digit is 27.
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit’s place is less than that at ten’s place by 3.
(1) 1 and II
(2) I and either II or III
(3) I and III
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

94. What is the rate of interest Percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple interest.
II. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a certain amount in two years is Rs400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is Rs2000.
(1) Only I
(2) II and III
(3) Any two of three
(4) I or II and III
(5) Only I or II and III

95. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall?

I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 3:2.
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) Only III
(4) I and either II or III
(5) Any two of the three

96. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is increased by 25%, the fraction obtained is . What was the original fraction?

(1) 5/7
(2) 4/7
(3) 3/8
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the three

97. If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2, what is the original number?

(1) 36 (2) 63
(3) 48
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

98. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining three angles of the quadrilateral are in ratio 4:11:9 respectively. What is the sum of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?

(1) 255°
(2) 260°
(3) 265°
(4) 270°
(5) None of these

99. An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the distance covered by aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 h? (Assuming that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform speed.)

(1) 5010 km
(2) 4875 km
(3) 5760 km
(4) 5103 km
(5) None of these


Directions (Q. Nos. 105-109) In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

 

105. 29, 37, 21,43 ,13, 53, 5

(1) 37
(2) 53
(3) 13
(4) 21
(5) 43

106. 600, 125, 30, 13, 7.2, 6.44, 6.288

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 12
(5) None of these

107. 80, 42, 24, 13.5, 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875

(1) 8.75
(2) 13.5
(3) 24
(4) 6.375
(5) 42

108. 10, 8, 13, 35, 135, 671, 4007

(1) 8
(2) 671
(3) 135
(4) 13
(5) 35

109. 150, 290, 560, 1120, 2140, 4230, 8400

(1) 2140
(2) 560
(3) 1120
(4) 4230
(5) 290
Directions (Q.Nos. 110-114) These questions are based on the following data. The distribution of appeared and qualified aspirants in competitive examination from different States.
Total appeared aspirants = 45000


110. What is the ratio of the number of appeared aspirants from States C and E together to that of the appeared aspirants from States A and F together?

(1) 17:33
(2) 11:13
(3) 13:27
(4) 17:27
(5) None of these

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111. In which state the percentage of qualified aspirants to appeared aspirants is the least?

(1) C
(2) F
(3) D
(4) E
(5) G

112. What is the difference in the number of qualified aspirants in states D and G?

(1) 690
(2) 670
(3) 780
(4) 720
(5) None of these

113. What is the percentage of qualified aspirants with respect to appeared aspirants from states B and C taken together? (Rounded off to two decimal places.)

(1) 23.11
(2) 24.21
(3) 21.24
(4) 23
(5) None of these

114. What is the ratio between number of candidates qualified from States B and D together and the number of candidates appeared from States ‘C respectively?

(1) 8:37
(2) 11:12
(3) 37 : 40
(4) 7 : 37
(5) None of the above
Directions (Q. Nos. 115-119) In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give


sector expenditure there was a continuous decrease in which sector?
(1) In no sector (2) Health
(3) Education (4) Social services
(5) Social welfare and related areas

123. For plan VI out of public sector expenditure, what per cent of expenditure is on Housing and Urban services?

(1) 0.35
(2) 25
(3) 25.5
(4) 2.5
(5) 20.5

124. For all the given plans, what was the difference in expenditure on education and health?

(1) Rs 220400000
(2) Rs 224000000
(3) Rs 22040000000
(4) Rs 220400000000
(5) None of these

125. The respective ratio between the present ages of son, mother, father and grandfather is 2:7:8:12 The average age of son and mother is 27 yr. What will be mother’s age after 7 yr?

(1) 40yr
(2) 41 yr
(3) 48 yr
(4) 49 yr
(5) None of these

126. In an examination, Raman scored 25 marks less than Rohit. Rohit scored 45 more marks than Sonia. Rohan scored 75 marks which is 10 more than Sonia. Ravi’s score is 50 less than, maximum marks of the test. What approximate percentage of marks did Ravi score in the examination, if he gets 34 marks more than Raman?

(1) 90
(2) 70
(3) 80
(4) 60
(5) 85

127. 8 men and 4 women together can complete a piece, of work in 6 days. The work done by a man in one day is double the work done by a woman in one day. If 8 men and 4 women started working and after 2 days 4 men left and 4 new women joined, in how many more days will the work be completed?

(1) 5 days
(2) 8 days
(3) 6 days
(4) 4 days
(5) 9 days

128. Mr Giridhar spends 50% of his monthly income on household items and out of the remaining he spends 50% on transport, 25% on entertainment, 10% on sports and the remaining amount of Rs 900 is saved. What is Mr Giridhar’s monthly income?

(1) Rs 6000
(2) Rs 12000
(3) Rs 9000
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

129. The cost of fencing a circular plot at the rate of Rs15 per m is Rs 3300. What will be the cost of flooring the plot at the rate of Rs 100 per sq m?

(1) Rs 385000
(2) Rs 220000
(3) Rs 350000
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

130. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal in 8 yr at the rate of 13% per year is Rs 6500. What would be the compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 8% per year in 2 yr?

(1) Rs 1040
(2) Rs 1020
(3) Rs 1060
(4) Rs 1200
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 131-135) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
There are two trains . A and B. Both trains have four different types of coaches viz. General coaches, sleeper coaches, first class coaches and AC coaches. In train A, there are total 700 passengers. Train B has 30% more passengers than train A. 20% of the passengers of train A are in general coaches. One-fourth of the total number of passengers of train A are in AC coaches. 23% of the passengers of train A are in sleeper class coaches. Remaining passengers of train A are in first class coaches. Total number of passengers in AC coaches in both the trains together is 480. 30% of the number of passengers of train B is in sleeper class coaches, 10% of the total passengers .of train B are in first class coaches. Remaining passengers of train B are in general class coaches.

131. What is the ratio of the number of passengers in first class coaches of train A to the number of passengers in sleeper class coaches of train B?

(1) 13:7
(2) 7:13
(3) 32 : 39
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

132. What is the total number of passengers in the general coaches of train A and the AC coaches of train B together?

(1) 449
(2) 459
(3) 435
(4) 445
(5) None of these

133. What is the difference between the number of passengers in the AC coaches of train A and total number of passengers in sleeper class coaches and first class coaches together of train B?

(1) 199
(2) 178
(3) 187
(4) 179
(5) None of these

134. Total number of passengers in general class coaches in both the trains together is approximately. What percentage of total number of passengers in train B?

(1) 35
(2) 42
(3) 45
(4) 38
(5) 31

135. If cost of per ticket of first class coach ticket is Rs 450, what total amount will be generated from first class coaches of train A?

(1) Rs 100080
(2) Rs 108000
(3) Rs 100800
(4) Rs 10800
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 136-140) Study the following pie chart carefully to answer the questions.
Degree Wise Break-up of Employees Working in Various Departments of an Organization and the ratio of Men to Women
 


136. What is the number of men working in the Marketing department?

(1) 462
(2) 454
(3) 418
(4) 424
(5) None of these

137. What is the respective ratio of the number of women working in the HR department to the number of men working in the IT department?

(1) 11:12
(2) 17:29
(3) 13:28
(4) 12:35
(5) None of these

138. The number of men working in the production department of the organisation forms what per cent of the total number of employees working in that department?

(1) 88%
(2) 90%
(3) 75%
(4) 65%
(5) None of these

139. The number of women working in the IT department of the organization forms what per cent of the total number of employees in the organization from all departments together?

(1) 3.2%
(2) 4.8%
(3) 6.3%
(4) 5.6%
(5) None of these

140. What is the total number of men working in the organization?

(1) 2198
(2) 2147
(3) 2073
(4) 2236
(5) None of these

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Posted: 31 Aug 2017 10:53 PM PDT

IBPS RRB Officer Scale - I Previous Year Paper with Answer Key


Exam Name: IBPS RRB Officer Scale - I
Year: 2013
File Type: PDF
File Size: 2.50 MB

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Posted: 31 Aug 2017 05:54 AM PDT

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams - 31 August 2017

 

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Ques1) Consider the following pairs :

Community sometimes In the affairs of mentioned in the news

1.Kurd – Bangladesh
2. Madhesi- Nepal
3.Rohingya- Myanmar
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

Ques 2) According to Niti Aayog’s Ease of Doing Business which of the following state is the low performing state?

1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Chattisgarh
3) Jharkhand
4) Odisha

Ques 3) Hawaii Island is located in which of the following oceans?

1) Pacific
2) Atlantic
3) Indian
4) Arctic

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post
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Posted: 31 Aug 2017 05:46 AM PDT
Bank Exam Current Affairs

Current Affairs for BANK, IBPS Exams 31 August 2017

 

::National::

 

99% of demonetised notes returned, says RBI report

  • The Reserve Bank of India’s annual report has finally revealed that as much as Rs. 15.28 lakh crore of the high-value currency that was demonetised in November 2016 returned to the central bank.
  • “Subject to future corrections, based on the verification process when completed, the estimated value of SBNs [specified bank notes] received as on June 30, 2017, is Rs. 15.28 trillion,” the RBI said in its report.
  • The central bank was under intense scrutiny since January — after the window for depositing the withdrawn Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,000 banknotes had closed — for details on the extent of currency that was returned to the banking system in the wake of the government’s decision to withdraw high-value banknotes as a means to combat counterfeiting, black money and the financing of terrorist activities.
  • The latest RBI data showed that 98.96% of the withdrawn currency — at the time of demonetisation the value of old Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,000 notes in circulation was Rs. 15.44 lakh crore — was deposited with the banks.
  • Separately, the data showed that the share of newly introduced Rs. 2,000 banknotes in the total value of currency in circulation was 50.2% at end-March 2017.
  • The final deposit figures could still rise since on June 20, 2017, the government allowed District Central Cooperative Banks to deposit the withdrawn notes that had been accepted by them from customers between November 10-14.
  • The central bank also said it was in discussion with the government whether to accept the demonetised notes held by citizens and financial institutions in Nepal.
  • Data in the annual report showed that only 89 million pieces of Rs. 1,000 were not deposited.
  • As of March 2016, there were 6,326 million pieces of Rs. 1,000 banknotes in circulation. In 2016-2017, another 925 million pieces of Rs. 1,000 notes were supplied into the system by the currency printing presses.
  • Finance Minister Arun Jaitley said that the confiscation of money was never the objective of the demonetisation exercise.

Technology reaches Ganesh idols

  • Hyderabad police are using technology for better monitoring of the festivities
  • As the widely celebrated Ganesh Chaturthi is on, idols of the elephant-headed god in different forms have sprung up in every nook and corner of Hyderabad.
  • This is the trend every year but this time, most of the Vigneshwara idols have one thing in common — the Quick Response (QR) code. And they were also geo-tagged.
  • Usage of technology is not new to Hyderabad police but they are using the QR code and geo-tag for better monitoring of the festivities.
  • With every Ganesh idol getting a QR code, it has become much easier for the police officials to find out the exact number of idols installed. Specific location of the idols and verification by policemen of the local police station concerned are being effectively monitored by the superior officers.
  • They are feeding details of the pandal organisers, their contact numbers and other details and linking them to the QR code. For even closer supervision, police patrolling parties like Blue Colts were asked to to visit each pandal and geo-tag the idol.
  • These details are being fed into their mobile phones and the entire data is made available to the top officials for better management. Geo-tagging details of idols are superimposed on the geo-spatial maps. “This helps in identifying clusters of idols in specific localities, deploying additional forces and keeping tabs on their movement,” the DCP explained.

Till Dec. 31 Aadhar can be linked to schemes

  • The notifications issued by various Ministries under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act require beneficiaries to link their numbers. On hearing Mr. Venugopal’s submission, a Bench, led by the Chief Justice of India, posted the petitions for the first week of November.
  • Mr. Divan drew the court’s attention to the concluding paragraph in Justice Rohinton Nariman’s separate judgment on the nine-judge Bench which had, last week, declared privacy a fundamental right. This paragraph directed the Aadhaar petitions to be posted for hearing before the “original” three-judge Bench.
  • The “original” Bench led by Justice J. Chelameswar had referred the petitions before a five-judge Bench, which found it necessary to decide whether privacy was a fundamental right or not.
  • It referred the legal question to the nine-judge Bench, which came out with the historic judgment in favour of the common man’s fundamental right to privacy against state intrusions.
  • The privacy verdict has a crucial bearing on the Aadhaar petitions, which have argued that use of biometric details such as fingerprints and iris scans violate bodily and informational privacy.
  • The petitioners argue that mandatory requirement of Aadhaar for these schemes “constrict rights and freedoms which a citizen has long been enjoying unless and until they part with their personal biometric information to the government”.
  • The petitions have termed the Aadhaar Act unconstitutional and contrary to the concept of limited and accountable government.

New consumer law to make consumer king

  • The famous 1992 McDonald’s Coffee Case, where the fast food chain had to cough up $640,000 as compensation to 79-year-old Stella Liebeck for “unreasonably dangerous” and “defectively manufactured” coffee, could soon repeat itself in India.
  • The new Consumer Protection Bill 2016 that seeks to replace a 31-year-old archaic law, has provisions to sue a manufacturer for not “giving adequate instructions of correct usage to prevent any harm or any warning regarding improper or incorrect usage.”
  • “So if a fast food chain does not serve coffee with adequate warning, then a lawsuit can be filed against them,” a senior official at the Department of Consumer Affairs said.
  • The Bill, which has been languishing for the last two years will soon come up for Cabinet approval.
  • The Bill replaces the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. The new law has provisions for Product Liability, which was unheard in India. The Bill was first introduced on August 10, 2015 and referred to the standing committee on August 26.
  • The panel submitted its report in August 2016, suggesting 80 amendments. This sent the government back to the drawing board, to rewrite the law.
  • Under the new draft, even the service providers like airlines can face liability action. “A flyer can sue an airline seeking not just reimbursement for a missed flight but also compensation for any important event or meeting he or she missed because the flight was cancelled at last minute,” the senior official added.
  • The consumer can lodge a complaint from anywhere unlike the existing law under which a consumer had to register the complaint at the same place from where she purchased the product.
  • Further, unlike the 1986

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