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Posted: 05 Sep 2017 01:23 AM PDT

Model Questions for IBPS PO PRELIM Exam : Quantitative Aptitude Set-8


1.In which year was the number of Graduate job-seekers the same as that of Senior Secondary job-seekers?
(1)1973
(2)1974
(3)1975
(4)1976
(5)None of these
2.In comparison to the year 1973, how many more job-seekers in all, were there in the year 1977?
(l)700
(2)1700
(3)2375
(4)2150
(5)None of these
3.In which year, was the number of Matriculate job-seekers maximum?
(1)1973
(2)1975
(3)1972
(4)1977
(5)None of these
4.The number of job-seekers, having their qualification as Senior Secondary, in the year 1974 was :
(1)525
(2)800
(3)1050
(4)1875
(5)None of these

5.The number of students taking Arts in college B, is how many thousand fewer than the number of students taking Arts in college A and college C together?
(1)123
(2)27.5
(3)50
(4)10
(5)None of these

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6.In college F, the students taking Commerce is what percent of the total number of students taking Arts, Science and Commerce in all?
(1)45
(2)55
(3)59
(5)25
(5)None of these
7.How many candidates (in thousands) have taken Commerce from all the colleges?
(1)165
(2)177
(3)185
(4)193
8.What is the respective ratio of the number of the students taking Science to the number of students taking Arts in college D?
(1)14 : 19
(2)12 : 17
(3)17 : 19
(4)19 : 14
(5)None of these

9.What was the ratio between the number of candidates appeared in 1997 and the number of candidates qualified in 2004?
(1)14 : 5
(2)5 : 14
(3) 3 : 7
(4)Data inadequate
(5)None of these
10.In which of the following years was the number of candidates qualified the lowest among the given years?
(1)1997
(2)2002
(3)2001
(4)1998
(5)None of these

Answer:

 

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (1) 

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Posted: 05 Sep 2017 12:38 AM PDT

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams - 3 September 2017

 

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Ques-1 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Buxa Tiger Reserve is located in Arunachal Pradesh parts of which border Bhutan.
2. It has been identified for the tiger augmentation programme by NTCA.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Ques-2 With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

 

1 (B), 2 (B)

 

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post
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Posted: 05 Sep 2017 12:17 AM PDT

 

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

 

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 51 -55) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

 

51. 4003 × 77 – 21015 = ? × 116

(1) 2477
(2) 2478
(3) 2467
(4) 2476
(5) None of these

52. [(5Ö7 + Ö7) × (4Ö7 + 8Ö7)] – (19)2 = ?

(1) 143
(2) 72Ö7
(3) 134
(4) 70Ö7
(5) None of these

53. (4444÷ 40) + (645 ÷ 25) + (3991 ÷ 26) = ?

(1) 280.4
(2) 290.4
(3) 295.4
(4) 285.4
(5) None of these

54.

(1) 37
(2) 33
(3) 34
(4) 28
(5) None of these

55.

(1) 303.75
(2) 305.75
(3) 303
(4) 305
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 56-60): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

 

56.

 8787 ÷ 343 × Ö50=?
(1) 250
(2) 140
(3) 180
(4) 100
(5) 280

57.

(1) 48
(2) 38
(3) 28
(4) 18
(5) 58

58.

of 4011.33 + of 3411.22 = ?
(1) 4810
(2) 4980
(3) 4890
(4) 4930
(5) 4850

59.

23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?
(1) 6460
(2) 6420
(3) 6320
(4) 6630
(5) 6360

60.

 335.01 × 244.99 ÷ 55 = ?
(1) 1490
(2) 1550
(3) 1420
(4) 1590
(5) 1400

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Directions (Q. 61-65) : In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

 

61.

5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910 4621
 
(1) 5531
(2) 5425
(3) 4621
(4) 5135
(5) 5506

62.

 6 7 9 13 26 37 69
(1) 7
(2) 26
(3) 69
(4) 37
(5) 9

63.

1 3 10 36 152 760 4632
(1) 3
(2) 36
(3) 4632
(4) 760 (5) 152

64.

 4 3 9 34 96 219 435
(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 34
(4) 435
(5) 219

65.

 157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 157.5
(5) 45

Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below: 


Time taken to travel (in hours) by six
vehicles on two different days

66. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days?

(1) Vehicle A
(2) Vehicle C
(3) Vehicle F
(4) Vehicle B
(5) None of these

67. What was the difference between the speed of Vehicle A on Day 1 and the speed of Vehicle C on the same day?

(1) 7 km/hr
(2) 12 km/hr
(3) 11 km/hr
(4) 8 km/hr
(5) None of these

68. What was the speed of Vehicle C on Day 2 in terms of metres per second?

(1) 15.3
(2) 12.8
(3) 11.5
(4) 13.8
(5) None of these

69. The distance travelled by Vehicle F on Day 2 was approximately what per cent of the distance travelled by it on Day 1?

(1) 80
(2) 65
(3) 85
(4) 95
(5) 90

70. What is the ratio of the speeds of Vehicle D and Vehicle E on Day 2?

(1) 15:13
(2) 17:13
(3) 13:11
(4) 17:14
(5) None of these

71. An article was purchased for ?78,350. Its price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a discount of 20% on the marked-up price. What was the profit per cent on the cost price?

(1) 4%
(2) 7%
(3) 5%
(4) 3%
(5) 6%

72. When X is subtracted from the numbers 9, 15 and 27, the remainders are in continued proportion. What is the value of X?

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5
(5) None of these

73. What is the difference between the simple and the compound interest on ` 7,300 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. in 2 years?

(1) Rs 29.37
(2) Rs 26.28
(3) Rs 31.41
(4) Rs 23.22
(5) Rs 21.34


74. The sum of three consecutive numbers is 2262. What is 41% of the highest number?

(1) 301.51
(2) 303.14
(3) 308.73
(4) 306.35
(5) 309.55

75. In how many different ways can the letters of the word THERAPY’ be arranged so that the vowels never come together?

(1) 720
(2) 1440
(3) 5040
(4) 3600
(5) 4800

76. What is the ratio of the number of mobile phones sold of Company B during July to those sold during December of the same company?

(1) 119 : 145
(2) 116 : 135
(3) 119 : 135
(4) 119 : 130
(5) None of these

77. If 35% of the mobile phones sold by Company A during November were sold at a discount, how many mobile phones of Company A during that month were sold without a discount?

(1) 882
(2) 1635
(3) 1638
(4) 885
(5) None of these


78. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of Rs 433 on each mobile phone sold of Company B during October, what was his total profit earned on the mobile phones of that company during the same month?

(1) Rs 6,49,900
(2) Rs 6,45,900
(3) Rs 6,49,400
(4) Rs6,49,500
(5) None of these

79. The number of mobile phones sold of Company A during July is approximately what per cent of the number of mobile phones sold of Company A during December?

(1) 110
(2) 140
(3) 150
(4) 105
(5) 130

80. What is the total number of mobile phones sold of Company B during August and September together?

(1) 10000
(2) 15000
(3) 10500
(4) 9500
(5) None of these
 
Directions (Q. 81-85): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:
The premises of a bank are to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of flooring. Certain areas are to be floored either with marble or wood. All rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to be renovated comprises a hall for customer transaction measuring 23m by 29m, the branch manager’s room measuring 13m by 17m, a pantry measuring 14m by 13m, a record keeping-cum-server room measuring 21 m by 13 m and locker area measuring 29m by 21 m. The total area of the bank is 2000 square metres. The cost of wooden flooring is ` 170 per square metre and the cost of marble flooring is ` 190 per square metre. The locker area, record keeping-cum-server room and pantry are to be floored with marble. The branch manager’s room and the hall for customer transaction are to be floored with wood. No other area is to be renovated in terms of flooring.

81. What is the ratio of the total cost of wooden flooring to the total cost of marble flooring?

(1) 1879:2527
(2) 1887:2386
(3) 1887:2527
(4) 1829:2527
(5) 1887:2351

82. If the four walls and 

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Posted: 05 Sep 2017 12:16 AM PDT
Bank Exam Current Affairs

Current Affairs for BANK, IBPS Exams 3 September 2017

 

::National::

 

Ragging in educational institutions is truly alive and kicking

  • Ragging in educational institutions is truly alive and kicking. Four out of every ten students admitted to higher educational institutions have been victims, a study commissioned by UGC has found.
  • The study, titled ‘Psychosocial Study of Ragging in Selected Educational Institutions in India’, was done during 2013-14 in 37 colleges and universities across the country.
  • It scrutinised the experiences of 10,632 students from different demographic profiles.
  • The study encompassed 13 colleges from the northern parts of India, 10 from the south, six from the east and eight from western India. The surveyed institutions included nine medical colleges, 11 engineering colleges and nine ‘degree’ colleges and universities.
  • The practice continues despite multiple judgements by the Supreme Court over the past two decades seeking to curb it.
  • The court in 1999 and 2007 issued guidelines to curb ragging and felt the need again in 2009 to set up a committee of mental health and public health professionals to study the menace.
  • The study finds ragging is more prevalent among hostel residents at 45.9%, when compared with the 32.5% incidence seen among day scholars.
  • The study examines ragging incidents reported in major media outlets between January 2007 and September 2013, and analyses 717 cases. The highest number of 97 was reported from Uttar Pradesh.
  • According to the study, factors such as individual appearance, region of origin, language spoken, sexuality, and caste were factors involved in the incidents.
  • The report states that the ability or inability to speak English often becomes a basis for discrimination and a factor in ragging.
  • Academicians and researchers said that during field visits it was observed that ragging was less prevalent in institutions that promoted a healthy interaction between teachers and students, and when there was a sense of community on the campus.
  • Surveillance tools such as CCTV cameras proved to be ineffectual as they often induced a sense of complacency among administrators.
  • Curiously, of the students who admitted to being ragged, 32.6% said they enjoyed the experience, while 45.1% admitted to feeling bad only initially.
  • Negative emotional experiences such as feeling angry was reported by 19.1% students, 12.1% said they felt helpless, and 8.6% felt ashamed and humiliated.
  • The results show that 33.8% of students felt ragging helps build confidence and develop personality traits, and 34.8% felt it toughened them mentally. As many as 35.7% felt ragging prepares a student to deal with the harsh world outside.

Ninth summit of BRICS to start in China

  • The ninth summit of BRICS, a grouping of Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa, will begin.
  • New Delhi and Beijing are unlikely to allow their differences over the Doklam plateau to cloud their support for the emerging economies and the Global South.
  • Analysts say that having benefited from open trade and investments, India is unlikely to let geopolitics or its close ties with Washington come in the way of joining China and the emerging economies in fostering a new wave of globalisation.
  • Notwithstanding the major points of convergence on a global canvas, a possible one-on-one meeting between President Xi Jinping and Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
  • Apart from the emerging countries, the region, including South Asia and the 10-nation Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN), would have a special interest in picking new signals shaping New Delhi-Beijing ties.
  • Of late, India’s pursuit of the Indo-Pacific doctrine, focussed on an energetic engagement of the ASEAN and island territories in the Pacific, with a strong Indian diaspora presence, is feeding into the broadening India-China equation.
  • Despite rejection of terrorism, India has been calling for the early endorsement of the U.N. convention of terrorism.
  • The Chinese are opposed to any formulation that would indirectly slam the role of Pakistan in global terrorism.

Buxa reserve part of tiger augmentation programme

  • Tigers will roar again at Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal. Located in Alipurduar district, the reserve, parts of which border Bhutan, has been identified for the tiger augmentation programme by NTCA.
  • Notified as a tiger reserve in 1983, Buxa consists of moist, deciduous and evergreen forests. It stretches to a length of 50 km from west to east and 35 km from north to south.
  • Over the past few years, the number of tigers in the Buxa reserve has been hotly debated by wildlife enthusiasts.
  • There were tigers in the reserve, almost no sighting of the big cats raised questions about their presence. The survey of tigers in 2011 based on DNA analyses of scat put the number of tigers at 20.
  • The Sunderbans in south Bengal is home to about 100 tigers. Experts have consciously decided not to augment tigers in the Buxa reserve from the Sunderbans, a completely different mangrove ecosystem.
  • Instead, tigers from the forest reserves of Assam, which have a similar flora and fauna, will be introduced in Buxa.
  • The reserve is located very close to Assam’s Manas Tiger Reserve, and some experts believe that animals from Manas often come to Buxa using Bhutan as a corridor.
  • The initial plan is to introduce six tigers at Buxa, but this poses a challenge to forest officials as there is human habitation in the area.

::International::

 

US space agency to be headed by former Navy pilot

  • U.S. President Donald Trump announced that he plans to appoint James Bridenstine, a former Navy pilot and Republican congressman, to head the U.S. space agency NASA.
  • Mr. Bridenstine, 42, who backed Mr. Trump during the U.S. presidential campaign, had long been considered the favourite for the job of NASA administrator.
  • But the nomination drew fire from two U.S. Senators from Florida.
  • Mr. Bridenstine, who was elected to Congress from Oklahoma in 2012, is a member of the House Armed Services Committee and the Committee on Science, Space and Technology.
  • According to the trade publication SpaceNews, Mr. Bridenstine has been a big proponent of giving the private sector a larger role in space.

::Business and Economy::

 

Implementation of GST has not gone well for many rice millers,

  • Implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) has not gone well for many rice millers, especially those who produce branded rice in the southern States.
  • GummadiVenkateswara Rao, chairman of All India Rice Millers’ Federation, said that earlier, some States had nil tax on rice while some had 5% tax.
  • Under GST, there is no tax on rice and hence, prices have come down in many places.
  • However, branded rice, which is just 2% to 3 % of the market, attracts a 5% rate.
  • Similarly, rice bran sold for solvent purposes attracts 5% GST while there is no tax on bran meant for cattle or poultry feed. More than half the volume goes to the feed industry. GST on bran should be removed.
  • Awareness on rice brands had been high in Tamil Nadu and there are more than 100 brands in the State.

Two-wheeler manufacturers recorded a significant jump in sales in August

  • Led by Royal Enfield, TVS Motor and Honda MotoCorp, two-wheeler manufacturers recorded a significant jump in sales in August, due to a favourable monsoon and the forthcoming festive season.
  • TVS Motor Company, which makes two- and three-wheelers, saw 16% growth for August 2017 at 3.18 lakh units, said a company statement.
  • The company’s total exports grew by 33.7% (from 34,097 units to 45,604 units) in August 2017.
  • Royal Enfield, which makes the iconic Bullet motorcycles, recorded a close to 22% growth in sales at 67,977 vehicles against 55,721 units sold in the comparable period a year earlier. While the domestic business grew 22%, international business rose 12%.

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Posted: 05 Sep 2017 12:10 AM PDT
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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

 

Subject: Reasoning

Directions (Q. 1-4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input : tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
StepII : 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 ta99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise
And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtainied.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

1. Which step number is the following output?

32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink
(1) StepV (2) Step VI
(3) Step IV (4) Step III
(5) There is no such step.

2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?

(1) 14 (2) 92
(3) feet (4) best
(5) why

3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘feet’ and ‘32’ as they appear in the last step of the output?

(1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
(5) Seven

4. Which of the following represents the position of ‘why’ in the fourth step?

(1) Eighth from the left
(2) Fifth from the right
(3) Sixth from the left
(4) Fifth from the left
(5) Seventh from the left

Directions (Q. 5-11) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
  •  B sits second to the left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
  •  D’s daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H’s husband.
  •  Only one person sits between A and F. A is father of G. H’s brother D sits on the immediate left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between H’s mother and E.
  •  Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

5. What is the position of A with respect to his mother-in- law?

(1) Immediate left (2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) Fourth to the left

6. Who amongst the following is D’s daughter?

(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) G
(5) H

7. What is the position of A with respect to his grand child?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the left

8. How many people sit between G and her uncle?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) H
(5) G

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(1) C is cousin of E.
(2) H and H’s husband are immediate neighbours of each other.
(3) No female is an immediate neighbour of C.
(4) H sits third to the left of her daughter.
(5) Bis mother of H.

11. Who sits on the immediate left of C?

(1) F’s grandmother
(2) G ‘s son
(3) D’s mother-in-law
(4) A
(5) G
Directions (Q. 12-18): In each group of questions below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

(1) if only conclusion I follows.
(2) if only conclusion II follows.
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

12.

Statements:
Some exams are tests.
No exam is a question.
Conclusions:
I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

(13-14):

Statements:
All forces are energies.
All energies are powers.
No power is heat.

13.

Conclusions:
 I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.

14.

Conclusions:
 I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

(15-16):

Statements: No note is a coin.
Some coins are metals.
All plastics are notes.

15.

Conclusions:
I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

16.

Conclusions:
 I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.

17.

Statements:
Some symbols are figures.
All symbols are graphics.
No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions:
I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.

18.

Statements:
 All vacancies are jobs.
Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions:
I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

Directions (Q. 19-21):

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Each of the six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F - scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

19. Which of the following could possibly be C’s score?

(1) 70
(2) 94
(3) 86
(4) 61
(5) 81

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(1) D’s score was definitely less than 60.
(2) F scored the maximum marks.
(3) Only two people scored more than C.
(4) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks.
(5) None is true

21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F’s marks. Which of the following can be D’s score?

(1) 94
(2) 60
(3) 89
(4) 78
(5) 81
Directions (Q. 22-29): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight persons from different banks, viz UCO Bank. Syndicate Bank. Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra, are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement.)
  • C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
  • Only one person sits between R and the person from PNB. The immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
  • The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
  • Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
  • B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

22. Which of the following is true regarding A?

(1) The person from UCO Bank faces A.
(2) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A.
(3) A faces the person who sits second to the right of R.
(4) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce.
(5) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB?

(1) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(2) P
(3) Q
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) S

24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

(1) D and the person from PNB
(2) The persons from Indian Bank and UCO Bank
(3) The persons from Dena Bank and P
(4) The persons from Syndicate Bank and D
(5) C,Q

25. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra?

(1) The person from Indian Bank
(2) P
(3) R
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) The person from Canara Bank

26. P is related to Dena Bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. Who amongst the following is D related to, following the same pattern?

(1) Syndicate Bank
(2) Canara Bank
(3) Bank of Maharashtra
(4) Indian Bank
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce

27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) Canara Bank
(2) R
(3) Syndicate Bank
(4) Q
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce

28. Who amongst the following is from Syndicate Bank?

(1) C
(2) R
(3) P
(4) D
(5) A

29. C is from which of the following banks?

(1) Dena Bank
(2) Oriental Bank of Commerce
(3) UCO Bank
(4) Syndicate Bank
(5) Canara Bank
Directions (Q. 30-34) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give answer
(1) if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question.
(2) if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question.
(3) if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question.
(4) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone or in Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.

30. Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V, each lives on a different floor of a six-storey building having its six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6). 

Who lives on the topmost floor?

I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even-numbered floor.
II. T does not live on an even-numbered floor. Q lives on an even-numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor.
III. S lives on an odd-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor.

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31. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is ‘ANSWER’ the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only?

I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.
II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S.
III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W.

32. Point D is in whieh direction with respect to Point B?

I. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point C is to the north of Point B. Point D is to the south of Point C.
II. Point G is to the south of Point D. Point G is 4m from Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B.
III. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point B is exactly midway between Point A and E. Point F is to the south of Point E. Point D is to the west of Point F

33. How is ‘one’ coded in a code language?

I. ‘one of its kind, is coded as ‘zo pi ko fe’ and ‘in kind and cash’ is coded as ‘ga to ru ko’.
II. ‘its point for origin’ is coded as ‘ba le fe mi’ and ‘make a point clear’ is coded as ‘yu si mi de’.
III. ‘make money and cash’ is coded as ‘to mi ru hy’ and ‘money of various kind’ is coded as ‘qu ko zo hy’.

34. Are all the four friends, viz A, B, C and D, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre?

I. B sits second to the right of D. D faces the centre. C sits on the immediate right of both B and D.
II. A sits on the immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. C sits on the immediate right of D.
III. D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C. B sits on the immediate left of A. C sits on the immediate right of B.
Directions (Q. 35): Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined.

35. Which of the following statements is an assumption implicit in the given statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.)

(1) Chemical fertilisers harm the crop.
(2) A farm’s area for organic and chemical farming is different.
(3) Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers in the chemical farming area would be penalized as well.
(4) All farmers undertake both these kinds of fanning (chemical as well as organic) in their farms.
(5) Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for chemical farming.
Directions (Q. 36-40): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with supermarkets such as Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.

36. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)

(1) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future.
(2) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a supermarket set-up.’
(3) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that of small grocery stores.
(4) Supermarkets generate more revenue by selling  products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones.
(5) Smaller brands have always had more tie-ups with supermarkets as compared to small grocery stores.
Directions (Q. 37-40): These questions are based on the information given above and the sentences labelled (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) as given below.(A) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the supermarkets.
(B) As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.
(C) Supermarkets help the smaller brands break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.
(D) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.
(E) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compared to the supermarkets.
(F) Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.

37. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) can be assumed from the facts/ information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Both (B) and (C)
(4) Both (D) and (E)
(5) Only (F)

38. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (E) and (F) represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand?

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (E)
(4) Only (F)
(5) Both (B) and (C)

39. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to Supermarkets by the smaller brands?

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (D)
(4) Both (A) and (D)
(5) Both (C) and (E)

40. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (E) and (F) mentioned above would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct?

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (E)
(4) Only (F)
(5) Both (B) and (E)
Directions (Q. 41-45): In each of the questions given below which of the five Answer Figures on the right should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

Directions (Q. 46-50): In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series/sequence (like Q. 41-45) . One and only one out of the five figures does not fit in the series/sequence. The number of that figure is you answer.

46


(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

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IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

 

Subject: Computer Knowledge

 

1. Which of the following is not true about computer files?

(1) They are collections of data saved to a storage medium.
(2) Every file has a filename.
(3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the computer on which it was created
(4) All files contain data.
(5) None of these

 2. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?

(1) WORD
(2) Printer
(3) Monitor
(4) Mouse
(5) Scanner

3. Which of the following is a secondary memory device?

(1) Keyboard
(2) Disk
(3) ALU
(4) Mouse
(5) Printer

4. The result of a formula in a cell is the

(1) label
(2) value
(3) range
(4) displayed value
(5) None of these

 5. Which of the following is not a storage medium?

(1) hard disk
(2) flash drive
(3) DVD
(4) CD
(5) monitor

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(5) Format 

6. Choose the odd one out _______

(1) Micro computer
(2) Minicomputer
(3) Supercomputer
(4) Notebook Computer
(5) Digital Computer

7. The ALU performs ______ operations

(1) logic
(2) ASCII
(3) algorithm-based
(4) logarithm-based
(5) final operations

 8. ______ is the part of the computer that does the arithmetical calculations.

 (1) OS
(2) ALU
(3) CPU
(4) Memory
(5) Printer

9. In a sequence of events that takes place in an instruction cycle, the first cycle is _______

(1) Store cycle
(2) Execute cycle
(3) Fetch cycle
(4) Decode cycle
(5) Code cycle

 10. Peripheral devices such as printers and plotters are considered to be _______ .

(1) hardware
(2) software
(3) data
(4) information
(5) None of thes

 11. Which of the following Excel charts represents only one value for each variable?

(1) function
(2) line
(3) pie
(4) bar
(5) None of these

 12. To see the document before the printout is taken, use _

(1) Insert Table
(2) Paste
(3) Format Painter
(4) Cut
(5) Print Preview

13. ALU works on the instructions and data held in the

 (1) Notebook
(2) Registers
(3) Copy Pad
(4) I/O devices
(5) None of these

14. To move data from one part of the document to another, following is used ______

(1) Cut and Paste
(2) Copy and Paste
(3) Cut and Delete
(4) Copy and Undo
(5) Cut and Insert

15. Another name for a pre-programmed formula in Excel is _________ _

(1) range
(2) graph
(3) function
(4) cell
(5) None of these

16. To save a document for the first time, ______ option is used

(1) Save as
(2) Save first
(3) Save on
(4) Copy
(5) Paste

17. What is a device that can change images into codes for the computer?

 (1) mouse
(2) printer
(3) joystick
(4) keyboard
(5) scanner

18. Two basic types of graphics used in Word 2000 are ______

(1) Autoshapes and ClipArt
(2) Header and Footer
(3) Drawing Objects and Pictures
(4) Spelling and Grammar
(5) Word Count

19. User can use ________ commands to search for and correct words in a document.

(1) Print and Print Preview
(2) Header and Footer
(3) Find and Replace
(4) Spelling and Grammar
(5) Copy and Paste

20. What is the advantage of using basic HTML to create a document?

(1) HTML is very easy to use
(2) The document can be displayed by all word processors
(3) The document can be displayed by all programs
(4) The document can be displayed by all browsers
(5) None of these

21. Which of the following functions is not performed by the CPU?

 (1) Graphical Display of Data
(2) Arithmetic Calculations
(3) Managing Memory
(4) Managing Input and Output
(5) None of these

22. The feature that keeps track of the right margin is ______

(1) find and replace
(2) word wrap
(3) right justified
(4) left justified
(5) ragged right

23. Keyboard shortcuts are used to move the _______

(1) I-beam
(2) insertion point
(3) scroll bar
(4) mouse
(5) None of these

24. To specify margins in Word, the user has to select Page Setup option from the ______ menu.

(1) Edit
(2) Table
(3) Autocorrect
(4) File

25. What is the name of the package which helps to create, manipulate and analyse data arranged in rows and columns?

(1) Application package
(2) Word processing package
(3) Outlining package
(4) Outline processors
(5) Spreadsheet package

26. What does an electronic spreadsheet consist of? (Choose the best answer)

(1) Rows
(2) Columns
(3) Cells
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

27. ROM is an example of which of the following?

 (1) volatile memory
(2) cache memory
(3) nonvolatile memory
(4) virtual memory
(5) None of these

28. Which of the following options is used to display information such as title, page number of the document?

(1) Insert Table
(2) Auto correct
(3) Thesaurus
(4) Spelling and Grammar
(5) Header and Footer

29. Which part of the computer can display the user’s work?

(1) Mouse
(2) Keyboard
(3) Disk Drive
(4) Monitor
(5) None of these

 30. When a computer prints a report, this output is called _

(1) Program
(2) Soft copy
(3) Hard copy
(4) Execution
(5) None of these

31. The processor is a _____ chip plugged onto the motherboard in a computer system.

(1) LSI
(2) VLSI
(3) ULSI
(4) XLSI
(5) WLSI

32. A register that keeps track of the next instruction to be executed is called a

(1) Data Register
(2) Instruction Register
(3) Action Register
(4) Program Counter
(5) Accumulator

 33. The microprocessor of a computer

(1) does not understand machine language
(2) understands machine language and high level languages
(3) understands only machine language
(4) understands only high level languages
(5) understands only assembly language

 34. A set of choices on the screen is called a(n) __

(1) menu
(2) reverse video
(3) action plan
(4) editor
(5) template

35. What is the full form of PROM?

(1) Programmable Read-Only Memory
(2) Progressive Read-Only
(3) Periodic Read-Only Memory
(4) Perfect Read-Only Memory
(5) Program Read-Only Memory

36. Which of the following will be used if a sender of e-mail wants to bold, itlaics etc. the text message?

(1) Reach Signature
(2) Reach Text
(3) Reach Format
(4) Plain Format
(5) Plain Text

37. Which of the following terms is not related to Internet?

(1) Link
(2) Function key
(3) Browser
(4) Search Engine
(5) Hyperlink

38. Which of the following justification align the text on both the sides - left and right - of margin?

(1) Right
(2) Justify
(3) both Sides
(4) Balanced
(5) None of these

39. What is the full form of LIS?

(1) Low-Scale Internet
(2) Large-Scale Internet
(3) Low-Scale Integration
(4) Large-Scale Integration
(5) Local-Scale Integration

40. To move the text from its original position to another position without deleting it is called-

(1) Scrolling
(2) Searching
(3) Moving
(4) Copying
(5) Halting

41. Which of the following is an active cell in Excel?

(1) Current Cell
(2) Formula
(3) Range
(4) Cell Address
(5) None of these

 42. What is included in an e-mail address?

 (1) Domain Name followed by User’s Name
(2) User’s Name followed by Domain Name
(3) User’s Name followed by Postal address
(4) User’s Name followed by street address
(5) None of these

 43. What the secret code is called which prohibits entry into some programs?

 (1) Access Code
(2) Passport
(3) Entry Code
(4) Password
(5) Keyword

44. Which of the following types of menu shows the further sub-choices?

(1) Reverse
(2) Template
(3) Scrolled
(4) Rapped
(5) Pull-Down

45. Which of the following operations is safe if an e-mail from an unknown sender is received?

(1) Open it to know about the sender and answer it
(2) Delete after opening it
(3) Delete it without opening it
(4) Open and try to know who is the sender
(5) None of these

46. The other name of motherboard is

 (1) Mouse
(2) Computer Board
(3) System Device
(4) Central Board
(5) System Board

47. By which of the following any art of a document can be seen on the screen?

(1) Searching
(2) Pasting
(3) Scrolling
(4) Editing
(5) Copying

48. Which of the following characteristics is used to compute dynamically the results from Excel data?

(1) Gotu
(2) Table
(3) Chart
(4) Diagram
(5) Formula and Function

 49. Which type of storage is hard disc?

(1) Non-permanent
(2) Volatile
(3) Temporary
(4) Non-volatile
(5) None of these

50. Which of the following hardwares is not a software?

(1) Excel
(2) Printer-Driver
(3) Operating System
(4) Power point
(5) Mouse

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(Download) IBPS : Recruitment of Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 11.03.2012 - Reasoning

1. In a certain code ‘TREAMWORK’ is written as ‘NBFUJQNV’ and ‘SOME’ is written as ‘PTDL’. How is ‘PERSON’ written in that code?
(a) QDOOPT
(b) QDOMNR
(c) SFQMNR
(d) SFQOPT
(e) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are three in the word ‘SUBSTANCE’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabets?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
3. How many meaningful English words, not ending with ‘D’ can be made with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word ‘STEADFAST’ using each letter only once in each word?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

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4. In a certain code ‘BASKET’ is written as ‘5$3%#1’ and ‘THIRD’ is written as ‘14*#2’. How is ‘SKIRT’ written in that code?
(a) 3%*41
(b) 3/%41
(c) 3%#41
(d) 3#4%1
(e) None of these
5. The positions of the first and the fifth digits of the number 81943275 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on till the fourth and the eight digits. Which of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(a) 1
(b) 9
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) None of these
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
M3 # R A T 1 E J $ K @ F U 5 4 V I 6©D 8 * G B 7 δ 2 W
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a  group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) T E R
(b) U4 @
(c) 6 D V
(d) J 1 K
(e) N δ *
7. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
8. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? R T 1 $ @ F
(a) 8 * H
(b) 8 H N
(c) 8 H 7
(d) D * H
(e) None of these
9. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
10. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement?
(a) V
(b) @
(c) δ
(d) ©
(e) None of these

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Courtesy: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
Posted: 04 Sep 2017 11:46 PM PDT

(Download) IBPS : Recruitment of Specialist Officers Exam Paper Held On 11.03.2012 - English Language

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggest one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. (51) over the world, rights related to information technology that are already legally  recognized are daily being violated, (52) in the name of economic advancement, political stability or for personal greed and interest. Violates of these rights have (53) new problems in human social systems, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns, all which above (54) people’s lives either directly or indirectly. It is important that countries come up with the guidelines for action to (55)the incidence of malicious attacks on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic data and system, computer-related crimes, content related offenses and violations of intellectual property rights. (56), threats to critical infrastructure and national interest arising from the use of the internet of criminal and terrorist activities are of growing (57). The harm incurred to businesses, governments and individuals in those countries in which the internet is used (58), is gaining in (59) and importance, while in other countries cybercrime threatens the application of information and communication technology for governmental services, health care, trade, and banking. As users start losing (60) in online transactions and business, the opportunity costs may become substantial.
51.
(a) Entire
(b) Lot
(c) Great
(d) All
(e) Much
52.
(a) scarcely
(b) whether
(c) and
(d) for
(e) hardly

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53.
(a) created
(b) bent
(c) pressured
(d) risen
(e) stooped
54.
(a) distanced
(b) affected
(c) exaggerated
(e) advanced
(e) cropped
55.
(a) engage
(b) conflict
(c) war
(d) combat
(e) struggle
56.
(a) But
(b) More
(c) Addition
(d) Beside
(e) Further
57.
(a) concern
(b) nature
(c) pattern
(d) important
(e) matter
58.
(a) really
(b) figuratively
(c) widely
(d) never
(e) tandem
59.
(a) fear
(b) days
(c) positivity
(d) width
(e) scope
60.
(a) tracks
(b) measure
(c) confidence
(d) mind
(e) grip
Rearrange the following six distance (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) It is not wonder that a majority of these excluded and low achievers come from the most deprived sections of society.
(b) They are precisely those who are supposed to empowered through education.
(c) With heightened political consciousness about the plight of these to-be-empowered people, never in the history of India has the demand for inclusive education been as fervent as today.
(d) The either never enroll or they drop out of schools at different stages during these eight years.
(e) On the nearly 200million children in the age group between 6 and 14 years, more than half do not complete eight years of elementary education.
(f) On those who do complete eight years of schooling, the achievement level of a large percentage, in language and mathematics, in unacceptably low.
61. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
62. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
63. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) C
(e) B
64. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
65. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) B
(e) A
In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.
66. Facts spoke louder than words at the Company meeting where the Direction tired to paint a rosy picture of the Company’s financial health.
(a) Too many facts related to the good financial health of the Company were presented during the meeting.
(b) The Company was not doing well financially despite the Director saying otherwise.
(c) The Director was very loud while presenting the facts about the Company’s financial health during the meeting.
(d) The facts stated in the meeting supported the Director’s claims of good financial health of the Company.
(e) The Company was doing exceptionally well financially, despite the Director saying otherwise.
67. By initialing the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had killed the goose that lay the golden egg
(a) By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had left her speechless.
(b) Kajal and ruined her chances of success by picking a fight Sakshi in office.
(c) Kajal had exacted her revenge by picking a fight with Sakshi in office.
(d) Kajal had hurt Sakshi by picking a fight with her in office.
(e) By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal hadmissed getting the golden egg.
68. I let the chips fall where they may and do not worry too much about what I want to do next.
(a) I take calculated risks.
(b) I let others dowhat theywant and do not interfere.
(c) I am clumsy.
(d) I do not try to control my destiny.
(e) I prefer chaos to calm.
69. After trying hard to convince Narendra to change his ways, Raman realized that a leopard cannot change its spots.
(a) Raman realized that Narendra would never change his ways.
(b) Raman realized that Narendra was helpless.
(c) Raman realized that he was not good at convincing others.
(d) Raman realized that Narendra would change his ways soon.
(e) Raman realized that someone else was forcing Narendra to act in a certain way.
70. Before starting work on our new project, ourmentor told us to not count our chickens before they hatched.
(a) Our mentor warned us against being over-confident about achieving success.
(b) Our mentor asked us to meticulously count the chicken first and then the eggs.
(c) Out mentor warned us against being over-enthusiastic in implementing the project.
(d) Our mentor warned us about all the challenges that lay ahead of us.
(e) Our mentor informed us about the prizes that would get on succeeding.

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Courtesy: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
Posted: 04 Sep 2017 10:59 PM PDT

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams - 2 September 2017

 

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Ques-1 Who among the following can declare an area as disturbed are under AFSPA?

A. Central Goverment
B. State Home Minister
C. Governor of State
D. Central Home Minister

Ques-2 Which of the following is correct regarding United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees?

1. It was established in 1945 along with UN
2. Headquarters of UNHCR is in Geneva
3. The UNHCR has won two Nobel Peace Prizes, once in 1954 and again in 1981
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1.3
D. All

Ques-3 Which of the following is/are correct regarding traders under GST?

1. All the traders have to register under GST
2. Traders with less than 20 lakhs turnover should register with GST only if are supplying goods to outside the coutry.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both
D. none

Answer:

 

1 (C), 2 (B), 3 (D)

 

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post
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Posted: 04 Sep 2017 10:55 PM PDT
Bank Exam Current Affairs

Current Affairs for BANK, IBPS Exams 2 September 2017

 

::National::

 

Chinese government is trying to woo Kashmiri students

  • Oblivious to the tensions that have recently marked India-China relations, Chinese medical universities have been splurging on advertisements in Kashmiri newspapers, promising “affordable” MBBS courses to students from the State.
  • Fatima Jan, a counsellor with Srinagar-based Fayaz International Counselling Centre, that around 90 China-based and state-run medical universities are currently taking students from Kashmir for courses taught in English.
  • This year, following an advertising blitz, half a dozen placement agencies in Srinagar have received over 200 queries on admission to MBBS courses in China. Similar queries at these centres were less than 20 last year.
  • Traditionally, Bangladesh has been the preferred destination for aspirants from the Valley.
  • Apart from MBBS, students in Jammu and Kashmir are looking at China for other specialised courses.
  • This year, counsellors are also offering MBBS seats in countries such as Kazakhstan, Georgia, and Kyrgyzstan.
  • A Kashmir-like climate and cultural links, especially food, “attract students to Central Asian countries.”

...

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